Lantern Prep

MOHAP RN Exam (UAE), Practice Questions

Practice for the MOHAP (UAE Ministry of Health and Prevention) registered-nurse evaluation: original four-option questions built on the shared Gulf nursing core (the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint), with source-cited rationales.
Content last updated 6 July 2026 · every question independently verified against its cited source

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Lantern Prep is an independent study aid. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, QCHP, Prometric, or any regulator or testing provider. Regulator and provider names are used only to identify the exams candidates prepare for. All questions are original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and open nursing references; no recalled, leaked, or actual exam content, ever. Educational study aid only, not medical advice or clinical guidance. Practice standards evolve and local policies differ; always follow your institution’s current protocols and the regulator’s official materials.

Frequently asked questions

How is the MOHAP RN Exam (UAE) structured?

The exam is 150 MCQs in about 165 minutes (as commonly published for MOHAP nursing evaluations), four-option single best answer. Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.

What score do I need to pass?

MOHAP communicates the official pass mark to applicants. We score your practice against a 60% benchmark as a conservative readiness guide — confirm the current pass mark in your applicant materials.

Are these real or recalled MOHAP exam questions?

No — and that matters. Selling ‘recalled’ or ‘actual’ exam questions violates the confidentiality agreement every candidate signs and can put your licence application at risk. Every Lantern Prep question is original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and grounded in open, authoritative nursing references, with the source cited in every rationale.

How many practice questions are included?

The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.

Does one purchase cover other Gulf regulators?

The core nursing content is shared across SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, and QCHP — the exams test the same registered-nurse fundamentals. Each regulator page packages the bank to that exam’s length and timing.

What does access cost?

$29, one time, lifetime access. No subscription, no account needed.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.

Is Lantern Prep affiliated with MOHAP or Prometric?

No. Lantern Prep is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by any regulator or testing provider.

Sample MOHAP RN Exam (UAE) practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

A nurse describes the relationship between evidence-based practice and research. Which statement reflects the source?

  1. EBP and research are unrelated activities that never inform each other
  2. Research replaces EBP once new innovations are discovered
  3. EBP means continuing existing practices simply because that is the way they have always been done on the unit
  4. EBP cannot exist without ongoing research, and research requires nurses to apply findings ✓

Why: The source states EBP and research are partners: EBP cannot exist without ongoing research, and research requires nurses to evaluate and apply findings. Translating evidence into practice means incorporating new research findings into practice.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice

A patient using a peak flow meter has a reading that is 60% of their personal best, with worsening cough and some limitation of activity. According to the source's asthma action plan, this patient is in which zone?

  1. Yellow Zone ✓
  2. Green Zone
  3. Red Zone
  4. Blue Zone

Why: The source states peak flow readings of 50 to 79% of personal best indicate the Yellow (Caution) Zone, with worsening symptoms and partial activity limitation. Green Zone is at least 80% of personal best; there is no Blue Zone.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.5 Asthma

According to the source, cell-free DNA (cfDNA) testing screens the maternal blood for abnormalities of which chromosomes?

  1. Chromosomes 8, 15, and 22 only
  2. Chromosomes 13, 18, and 21 ✓
  3. Chromosomes 9, 16, and 20
  4. Chromosomes 5, 11, and 14

Why: The source states cfDNA analyzes maternal blood for abnormal DNA from chromosomes 21, 18, and 13, screening for trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome). The other chromosome sets are not those named in the text.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.8 First Trimester Prenatal Care

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According to the source, lithium blood levels should be drawn how long after the last dose was taken?

  1. 1-2 hours after the last dose
  2. 24-36 hours after the last dose
  3. Immediately before the first morning dose only
  4. 10-12 hours after the last dose ✓

Why: The source states therapeutic blood levels are required and that blood levels are drawn 10-12 hours after the last dose taken. The therapeutic lithium serum level is 0.6-1.2 mEq/L.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 6.4 Mood Stabilizer - Lithium

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is described by the source as resulting from which cause?

  1. An allergic response to donor plasma proteins
  2. Volume overload from an overly rapid rate or amount ✓
  3. Bacterial contamination of the blood product
  4. ABO blood incompatibility between the donor and recipient

Why: The source states TACO occurs when the volume of the transfusing blood component causes volume overload (hypervolemia) from an overly rapid administration rate or amount, presenting with crackles, dyspnea, and jugular vein distension.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 3.2 Basic Concepts

A tracing shows decelerations that begin during the contraction with the nadir occurring after the peak. According to the source, what do these indicate?

  1. Benign fetal head compression
  2. Reassuring fetal well-being
  3. Umbilical cord compression only
  4. Fetal hypoxia (nonreassuring) ✓

Why: The source defines a late deceleration as one that begins during the contraction and continues after it, with the nadir after the peak, and states it is nonreassuring and indicates fetal hypoxia. Early decelerations from head compression are benign; variable decelerations reflect cord compression.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.5 Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring

According to the source, croup is more formally known as which of the following?

  1. Laryngotracheobronchitis ✓
  2. Acute epiglottitis of the airway
  3. Bronchiolitis
  4. Pharyngotonsillitis

Why: The source states croup, more formally known as laryngotracheobronchitis, leads to inflammation of the trachea, larynx, and bronchi.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.8 Croup

According to the source, room air contains what concentration of oxygen (FiO2)?

  1. 10%
  2. 21% ✓
  3. 50%
  4. 100%

Why: The source states room air contains 21% oxygen concentration, so the FiO2 for supplementary oxygen therapy ranges from 21% to 100%. The oxygen flow rate on a flow meter ranges between 1 L/minute and 15 L/minute.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 11.2 Basic Concepts of Oxygenation

The source states hepatitis A is commonly transmitted by which route?

  1. Contaminated blood transfusion
  2. Sexual contact only
  3. Fecal-to-oral route ✓
  4. Airborne droplets

Why: The source states hepatitis A is commonly transmitted via the fecal-to-oral route and is common in places with poor sanitation. Hepatitis B and C are transmitted via contact with infected body fluids.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.15 Hepatitis

According to the source, alpha-2 adrenergic agonists such as clonidine relieve which symptoms of opioid withdrawal most effectively?

  1. Muscle aches, insomnia, and drug craving
  2. Only psychiatric symptoms such as hallucinations
  3. Autonomic symptoms such as sweating, diarrhea, and nausea ✓
  4. Respiratory depression and sedation

Why: The source states alpha-2 adrenergic agonists including clonidine and lofexidine effectively relieve autonomic symptoms of sweating, diarrhea, intestinal cramps, nausea, anxiety, and irritability, but are least effective for myalgias, restlessness, insomnia, and craving.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.3 Withdrawal Management/Detoxification

A community health nurse is identifying vulnerable populations in the community. According to the source, which of the following is listed as an example of a vulnerable population?

  1. Homeless people and migrant workers ✓
  2. Salaried office managers
  3. Licensed physicians
  4. Owners of large corporations

Why: The source lists examples of vulnerable populations including the very young and very old, individuals with chronic illnesses or disabilities, veterans, racial and ethnic minorities, the LGBTQ population, human trafficking victims, incarcerated individuals, rural Americans, migrant workers, and homeless people.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

According to the source, how does a patient's total Braden Scale score relate to their pressure injury risk?

  1. The higher the score, the higher the risk of developing a pressure injury
  2. The score reflects existing wounds rather than future risk of injury
  3. Any score below 18 indicates the patient already has a pressure injury
  4. The lower the score, the higher the risk of developing a pressure injury ✓

Why: The source states the lower the score, the higher the risk of developing a pressure injury, and the more aggressive the preventive interventions taken. The score predicts risk rather than confirming an existing wound, so the other options are incorrect.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 10.5 Braden Scale

According to the source, any pregnancy loss that occurs before which gestational age is referred to as an abortion?

  1. Before 20 weeks' gestation ✓
  2. Before 12 weeks' gestation
  3. Before 24 weeks' gestation
  4. Before 28 weeks' gestation

Why: The source states any pregnancy loss that occurs before 20 weeks' gestation is referred to as an abortion, which includes elective, spontaneous, threatened, inevitable, complete, incomplete, and missed types. The other gestational ages do not match the definition.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.14 Pregnancy Loss and Fetal Demise

Per the HIV screening guidance cited in the source, all people within which age range should be tested at least once for HIV?

  1. Ages 18 to 30
  2. Ages 21 to 65
  3. Ages 13 to 64 ✓
  4. Ages 15 to 49

Why: The source cites screening guidance that all people between the ages of 13 and 64 should be tested at least once for HIV. It also notes anyone sexually active who shares needles should be tested for HIV yearly.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.5 Reproductive Screening

A child with conjunctivitis has purulent discharge that sticks to the eyelashes. According to the source, this finding is most consistent with which cause?

  1. A viral cause
  2. A bacterial cause ✓
  3. An allergic cause
  4. A toxin exposure

Why: The source states that with a bacterial cause, discharge is purulent and may stick to the eyelashes, whereas viral and allergic forms have a watery discharge.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.6 Conjunctivitis

A nurse distinguishes competence from capacity. According to the source, which statement is correct?

  1. Competence is routinely assessed by the bedside nurse, while capacity is instead decided by a judge
  2. Both competence and capacity are formally determined at the bedside by the nurse providing care
  3. Competence is a legal determination made by a judge; capacity is a functional determination ✓
  4. Capacity is a permanent legal status that, once assigned, cannot ever change or be re-evaluated

Why: The source states competence is a LEGAL determination decided by a judge of ability to participate in legal proceedings, whereas capacity is a FUNCTIONAL determination of whether an individual can make a specific medical decision. Nurses do not formally assess capacity but may initiate evaluation and contribute data.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Legal Implications

A nurse administers a diuretic to a patient with heart failure. Based on the source, which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for as a potential effect of the therapy?

  1. Hyperkalemia
  2. Hypernatremia
  3. Hypokalemia ✓
  4. Hypercalcemia

Why: The source states diuretics can cause hypokalemia and other electrolyte imbalances, so electrolytes must be monitored and potassium supplementation may be required. The other imbalances are not identified.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.8 Heart Failure

A child is having a febrile seizure. According to the source, which nursing action ensures safety?

  1. Restrain the child's arms and legs very firmly
  2. Insert a padded tongue blade in the mouth
  3. Place the child on their side to prevent aspiration ✓
  4. Hold the child tightly in an upright position

Why: The source states to ensure safety by placing the child on their side to prevent aspiration of oral secretions and removing nearby objects; the child should NOT be restrained, as this can lead to trauma.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.10 Febrile Seizures

According to the source, infertility is defined as a couple being unable to conceive after what duration of unprotected sex?

  1. One year or longer of unprotected sex ✓
  2. Three months of unprotected sex
  3. Six weeks of unprotected sex
  4. Two years of unprotected sex

Why: The source defines infertility as a couple not being able to get pregnant after one year (or longer) of unprotected sex. It states that among women aged 15 to 49 with no prior births, about 1 in 5 are unable to conceive after one year of trying.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.6 Fertility

A patient is admitted after a stroke and requires objective monitoring of level of consciousness. According to the source, which tool is frequently used for this purpose?

  1. The Braden Scale
  2. The Glasgow Coma Scale ✓
  3. The PQRSTU method
  4. Gordon's Functional Health Patterns

Why: The source states the Glasgow Coma Scale is frequently used to objectively monitor level of consciousness in patients with neurological damage such as a head injury or cerebrovascular accident (stroke). It is part of a routine neurological exam performed by registered nurses.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 6.3 Neurological Exam

According to the source, effective HIV treatment during pregnancy has reduced the mother-to-infant transmission rate to what level?

  1. About 5%
  2. About 10%
  3. About 25%
  4. Less than 1% ✓

Why: The source states that many effective medications reduce and prevent HIV spread from mother to child, and these treatments have led to a dramatic decrease in the mother-to-infant transmission rate to less than 1%. Antiretroviral prophylaxis is also given to the infant.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.2 High-Risk Pregnancy

A patient taking lithium develops ataxia, blurred vision, severe hypotension, and confusion. According to the source, these severe signs of toxicity correspond to which serum level?

  1. Less than 1.5 mEq/L
  2. Greater than 2.0 mEq/L ✓
  3. 0.6-1.2 mEq/L
  4. A level of 1.6-1.9 mEq/L

Why: The source lists severe signs of lithium toxicity (greater than 2.0 mEq/L) as ataxia, blurred vision, large output of dilute urine, severe hypotension, clonic movements, overt confusion, cardiac dysrhythmias, and death secondary to pulmonary complications.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 6.4 Mood Stabilizer - Lithium

According to the source, stridor is a characteristic symptom of which severity of croup?

  1. Mild croup
  2. Severe croup ✓
  3. Resolving croup
  4. Early croup

Why: The source states that if swelling worsens, a high-pitched sound called stridor can occur as the patient breathes through an obstructed airway; stridor is a characteristic symptom of severe croup.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.8 Croup

A patient has primary dysmenorrhea. According to the source, which is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?

  1. Opioid analgesics such as oxycodone
  2. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) ✓
  3. Broad-spectrum oral antibiotics
  4. Loop diuretics such as furosemide

Why: The source states NSAIDs such as ibuprofen or naproxen are prescribed as first-line pharmacologic treatment to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and reduce pain in dysmenorrhea. Hormonal therapies may also be prescribed to suppress ovulation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.8 Dysmenorrhea

According to the source, what are the six rights of medication administration that must be verified before administering a medication?

  1. Right patient, drug, dose, provider, pharmacy, and cost
  2. Right patient, diagnosis, dose, time, route, and refusal
  3. Right drug, dose, allergy, history, education, and refusal
  4. Right patient, drug, dose, time, route, and documentation ✓

Why: The source lists the six rights of medication administration as Right Patient, Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Time, Right Route, and Right Documentation. These must be verified by the nurse at least three times before administering a medication; additional rights (history/assessment, drug interactions, refusal, education) extend the list up to ten.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 15.2 Basic Concepts of Administering Medications

A nurse observes rise and fall of the fluid in the water seal chamber of a patient's chest tube with breathing. According to the source, this tidaling indicates what?

  1. An air leak requiring provider notification
  2. The drainage system must be replaced
  3. The lung has completely collapsed
  4. The chest tube is patent ✓

Why: The source states the water may rise with inhalation and fall with exhalation, called tidaling, which indicates the chest tube is patent. Continuous bubbling, not tidaling, may indicate an air leak.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 6.2 Chest Tube Basic Concepts

According to the source, all blood products must be completely administered within what maximum time?

  1. Less than eight hours
  2. Less than two hours
  3. Less than four hours ✓
  4. Less than twelve hours

Why: The source states all blood products must be completely administered in less than four hours, and administration sets are changed at the completion of every unit or every four hours to reduce bacterial contamination.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 3.5 Anemia

A nurse is educating a patient on home oxygen safety. According to the source, oxygen delivery systems should be kept at least how far from any heat source?

  1. At least 1 foot
  2. At least 5 feet ✓
  3. At least 15 feet
  4. At least 25 feet

Why: The source's oxygen safety guidelines state that oxygen delivery systems should be kept at least 5 feet from any heat source, because oxygen supports combustion. No smoking is permitted near oxygen devices, and petroleum-based lubricants should not be used near a nasal cannula due to flammability risk.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 11.3 Oxygenation Equipment

According to the source, where is the neonate with gastroschisis or omphalocele cared for around the time of corrective surgery, and what nutritional support may be needed afterward?

  1. On a general postpartum unit with routine oral feedings only
  2. In a NICU before and after surgery; parenteral nutrition may be needed ✓
  3. At home with scheduled outpatient follow-up and no special nutrition
  4. In an isolation room on total bowel rest with no nutrition provided

Why: The source states the neonate with gastroschisis or omphalocele is cared for in a NICU both before and after surgery. After the repair, infants may have problems digesting food and absorbing nutrients and may require parenteral nutrition.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.6 Congenital and Genetic Disorders

After delegating a task, the licensed nurse provides supervision. Which action best reflects supervision as defined in the source?

  1. Transferring the nurse's own license accountability for the patient fully to the delegatee
  2. Verifying and evaluating that the delegated task was performed correctly and safely ✓
  3. Requiring the delegatee to independently reassign or re-delegate the task if they become busy
  4. Refraining from any further involvement or follow-up once the task has been delegated to the person

Why: The source defines supervision as the licensed nurse verifying and evaluating that a delegated task was performed correctly, appropriately, safely, and competently. The nurse monitors the activity, follows up at completion, evaluates outcomes, and remains available to intervene.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Delegation and Supervision