Lantern Prep Gulf Nursing License Exam Prep

Qatar RN Exam (DHP, formerly QCHP), Practice Questions

Practice for the QCHP (Qatar) registered-nurse qualifying examination: original four-option questions built on the shared Gulf nursing core — QCHP uses the same domain structure as the SCFHS SNLE blueprint — with source-cited rationales.
Content last updated 6 July 2026 · every question independently verified against its cited source

Revision Mode

Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the source-cited rationale. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.

Domains to include
Number of questions

Exam Mode

Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each domain scored separately against the practice benchmark, with a full question-by-question review at the end.

Domains to include
Exam length
Timer (optional)

Each domain is scored separately so you know exactly where you stand.

Blueprint domains & your progress

Unlock the full question bank

The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every domain so you can revise each topic: 150 questions in all. The full bank covers the whole blueprint in depth, with source-cited rationales on every question. $29, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices.

✓ Original questions, never recalled content · source-cited rationales · no subscription · unlock on 3 devices with your purchase email

Score history

The real exam: key facts

Delivered byPrometric
Official examRegistered General Nurse Qualifying Examination, Department of Healthcare Professions (DHP), Ministry of Public Health Qatar (formerly QCHP)
Questions150 MCQs
Time3 hours on the DHP web page (its nurse blueprint PDF says 3½ hours; check your appointment letter)
Passing score50% cut score
Book your examproscheduler.prometric.com/?prg=schq2&path=schd

Checked 11 October 2026 from the official sources below. Rules and fees change, so confirm with Prometric before you book.

Official sources
Lantern Prep is an independent study aid. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, QCHP, Prometric, or any regulator or testing provider. Regulator and provider names are used only to identify the exams candidates prepare for. All questions are original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and open nursing references; no recalled, leaked, or actual exam content, ever. Educational study aid only, not medical advice or clinical guidance. Practice standards evolve and local policies differ; always follow your institution’s current protocols and the regulator’s official materials.

Frequently asked questions

How is the Qatar RN Exam (DHP, formerly QCHP) structured?

The exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours (Qatar Department of Healthcare Professions qualifying exam page; its nurse blueprint document says 3½ hours), four-option single best answer. Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.

What score do I need to pass?

The Department of Healthcare Professions (formerly QCHP) publishes a 50% pass mark. We score your practice against a stricter 60% benchmark as a conservative readiness guide. Confirm the current figures in your applicant materials.

Are these real or recalled QCHP exam questions?

No — and that matters. Selling ‘recalled’ or ‘actual’ exam questions violates the confidentiality agreement every candidate signs and can put your licence application at risk. Every Lantern Prep question is original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and grounded in open, authoritative nursing references, with the source cited in every rationale.

How many practice questions are included?

The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.

Does one purchase cover other Gulf regulators?

The core nursing content is shared across SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, and QCHP — the exams test the same registered-nurse fundamentals. Each regulator page packages the bank to that exam’s length and timing.

What does access cost?

$29, one time, lifetime access. No subscription, no account needed.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.

Is Lantern Prep affiliated with QCHP or Prometric?

No. Lantern Prep is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by any regulator or testing provider.

What topics does the Qatar RN Exam (DHP, formerly QCHP) question bank cover?

It is organised into 4 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing and Nursing Management and Leadership. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.

When was this question bank last updated?

Last updated 6 July 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.

Sample Qatar RN Exam (DHP, formerly QCHP) practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

After administering an injection, a nurse must recap a needle before disposal. Which technique prevents needlestick injury per the source?

  1. Recap the needle using both hands to steady the cap and firmly seat it onto the needle
  2. Leave the needle uncapped on the tray until end of the shift
  3. Use the one-handed scoop-cap method with the cap on a hard surface ✓
  4. Hold the cap between two fingers while inserting the needle

Why: The source states not to recap with both hands and to use the scoop-cap method, laying the cap on a hard surface and using one hand to scoop it up. Two-handed recapping creates a high needlestick risk, and used needles should be disposed of immediately in a sharps container, not left uncapped.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 18.3 Evidence-Based Practices for Injections

A stable newborn of a diabetic mother is being cared for. According to the source, which intervention is important for glycemic control and thermoregulation?

  1. Feeding by mouth within the first hour of life ✓
  2. Withholding feeding for the first 24 hours
  3. Providing only intravenous glucose
  4. Delaying the first feeding until blood glucose is drawn twice

Why: The source states that if the infant of a diabetic mother is otherwise stable, feeding by mouth within the first hour of life is important for glycemic control and thermoregulation, with additional formula feedings as needed per agency policy.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.7 Maternal Diabetes

Before performing an assessment or providing care, the nurse must use at least two patient identifiers. According to the source, which pair is acceptable?

  1. The patient's name and date of birth, verified against the armband or chart ✓
  2. The patient's room number and bed position
  3. The patient's diagnosis and provider name
  4. The patient's assigned room number combined with their admitting medical diagnosis

Why: The source instructs the nurse to use at least two patient identifiers, such as asking the patient to state their name and date of birth and comparing it to the armband or chart. A room number must never be used as an identifier because a patient may change rooms.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 1.2 Initiating Patient Interaction

Show more sample questions with answers & rationales

A patient takes warfarin at home. Which laboratory test does the source identify as required to monitor its therapeutic effect?

  1. Prothrombin time (PT) or international normalized ratio (INR) ✓
  2. Serum digoxin trough level measured before the next dose
  3. Blood glucose level
  4. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) drawn before each scheduled dose

Why: The source states warfarin requires close monitoring of prothrombin time (PT) or INR, with a therapeutic INR ranging from 2.0 to 3.5 depending on indication. PTT is used for IV heparin, while digoxin and glucose levels monitor other therapies.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 6.12 Blood Coagulation Modifiers

According to the source's settings table, a nasal cannula delivers oxygen at what flow rate and FiO2 range?

  1. Flow rate 6-10 L/min; FiO2 35% to 50%
  2. Flow rate 1-6 L/min; FiO2 24% to 44% ✓
  3. Flow rate 10-15 L/min; FiO2 60% to 80%
  4. Flow rate up to 60 L/min; FiO2 up to 100%

Why: The source's settings table lists the nasal cannula flow rate as 1-6 L/min delivering an FiO2 of 24% to 44%, with about a 4% increase in FiO2 for every liter of oxygen. It is best used for stable patients requiring low amounts of oxygen.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 11.3 Oxygenation Equipment

A nurse is coordinating care for a dying patient and their family. Which level of care provides palliative and supportive physical, psychological, social, and spiritual care?

  1. Home health services
  2. Urgent care
  3. Inpatient acute care
  4. Hospice care ✓

Why: The source describes hospice as palliative/supportive physical, psychological, social, and spiritual care for dying patients and their families, provided either at home or as inpatient care.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Health Care Economics

According to the source's settings table, a bag valve mask (Ambu bag) attached to an oxygen source should be set to what flow rate and delivers what FiO2?

  1. Flow rate 15 L/min; FiO2 100% ✓
  2. Flow rate of only 6 L/min delivering an FiO2 of approximately 40 percent
  3. Flow rate 10 L/min; FiO2 60%
  4. Flow rate 2 L/min; FiO2 28%

Why: The source's settings table states the bag valve mask flow rate should be set to 15 L/minute, resulting in an FiO2 of 100%. The bag is squeezed once every 5 to 6 seconds for an adult or once every 3 seconds for an infant or child.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 11.3 Oxygenation Equipment

An electronic system allows a nurse to instantly retrieve a patient's records rather than waiting for paper charts to arrive. According to the source, this reflects which benefit of informatics?

  1. Increasing medication errors
  2. Reducing delays in care ✓
  3. Penalizing poor performance
  4. Confining a patient to a bounded area

Why: The source lists reducing delays in care as a benefit of informatics, alongside improving patient safety, reducing waste, promoting patient-centered care, and supporting quality improvement.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice

A postoperative patient suddenly develops dyspnea, hemoptysis, and restlessness. According to the source, what is the first action for this suspected embolism?

  1. Administer a stool softener as prescribed
  2. Request immediate or emergency assistance ✓
  3. Encourage slow, deep breathing exercises
  4. Reinforce the surgical dressing and circle drainage

Why: The source states that for embolism with sudden dyspnea, the nurse should request immediate/emergency assistance, then administer oxygen therapy and anticoagulant therapy (heparin) and/or tPA as prescribed.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care

A nurse uses barcode medication administration technology. According to the source, what is the primary safety benefit of this technology?

  1. It completely removes the need for a provider to first write and sign a medication order
  2. It ensures the right dose reaches the right patient at the right time, reducing medication errors ✓
  3. It allows medication administration to be safely delegated to any unlicensed assistive person
  4. It eliminates the nurse's responsibility to document the medication that was given to the patient

Why: The source states barcode scanning improves patient safety by reducing medication errors, ensuring the right dose to the right patient at the right time. It does not replace orders, documentation, or the nurse's judgment.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice

A nurse reviews screening guidance for a sexually active woman who is 22 years old. According to the source, this patient should be tested annually for which infections?

  1. Syphilis and hepatitis C only
  2. Hepatitis B and HIV only
  3. Trichomoniasis and HPV
  4. Gonorrhea and chlamydia ✓

Why: The source cites screening guidance that all sexually active women younger than age 25 (as well as women with new or multiple partners or whose partners have an STI) should be tested for gonorrhea and chlamydia annually.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.5 Reproductive Screening

A nurse reviews the drug schedule classification system. According to the source, which statement correctly contrasts Schedule I and Schedule V substances?

  1. Schedule V has high abuse potential; Schedule I the least potential
  2. Schedule I has the least abuse potential; Schedule V the greatest
  3. Schedule I has high abuse potential; Schedule V the least potential ✓
  4. Schedule I and Schedule V both have no accepted medical use

Why: The source states Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and severe dependence, whereas Schedule V drugs represent the least potential for abuse. Only Schedule I is described as having no currently accepted medical use, so the options reversing or equating the two schedules are incorrect.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 2.3 Legal Foundations and National Guidelines

A patient feels better after three days of a prescribed antibiotic course and asks the nurse if they can stop taking it. What is the nurse's best response based on the source?

  1. Complete the entire course of therapy even after symptoms disappear, or contact the provider if unable to do so ✓
  2. Yes, once symptoms improve the remaining antibiotic can be safely discarded
  3. Stop the antibiotic and switch to an antiviral medication instead
  4. Take only half of the remaining antibiotic doses each day to reduce gastrointestinal side effects

Why: The source states that taking an antibiotic as directed, even after symptoms disappear, is key to curing infection and preventing resistant bacteria. Patients should be advised to complete the entire course of therapy or contact their provider if unable to do so, because stopping early can lead to antibiotic resistance.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 9.5 Treating Infection

According to the source, what maintains the corpus luteum in early pregnancy until the placenta takes over progesterone production?

  1. Human placental lactogen (hPL)
  2. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  3. Relaxin
  4. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) ✓

Why: The source states that human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) produced by the fertilized egg maintains the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone until mid-pregnancy when the placenta begins producing progesterone. Increased estrogen and progesterone actually block FSH and LH secretion.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.4 Changes During Pregnancy

A patient on an antipsychotic develops an acute dystonic reaction affecting the larynx. According to the source, why is this a medical emergency?

  1. It always resolves without any intervention
  2. It indicates the medication is working correctly
  3. It can require intubation and mechanical ventilation ✓
  4. It is a permanent and untreatable movement disorder

Why: The source states acute dystonic reactions affecting the larynx can be a medical emergency requiring intubation and mechanical ventilation. EPS symptoms usually resolve within 10 to 30 minutes of parenteral anticholinergics such as diphenhydramine and benztropine.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.3 Schizophrenia

According to the source, the initial treatment of clubfoot to gradually realign the foot involves which intervention?

  1. A single surgical release at birth
  2. Serial casting with casts changed routinely ✓
  3. A Pavlik harness worn continuously until age four years
  4. Immediate amputation of rigid tissue

Why: The source states clubfoot treatment includes serial casting to remodel the soft tissue, with casts routinely changed approximately five to nine times, followed by bracing with a boot and bar.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.6 Congenital Conditions

According to the source, a migrant worker is best defined as which of the following?

  1. A person who permanently settles in a new country for retirement
  2. A person who moves within or outside their home country to pursue work ✓
  3. A health care provider who regularly travels between different hospitals
  4. A person incarcerated in a correctional facility

Why: The source defines a migrant worker as a person who moves within their home country or outside of it to pursue work, and who usually does not intend to stay permanently in the region in which they work.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

According to the source, which type of hypersensitivity reaction is also known as atopic allergy and is the most common type, involving IgE antibodies?

  1. Type 2 (Cytotoxic)
  2. Type 3 (Immune Complex)
  3. Type 1 (Immediate) ✓
  4. Type 4 (Delayed)

Why: The source states Type 1 hypersensitivity, also known as atopic allergy, is the most common type. On initial exposure sensitization occurs with production of IgE antibodies; on subsequent exposure the allergen binds IgE on mast cells, triggering histamine release.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.5 Autoimmune and Hypersensitivity Reactions

According to the source, informatics is described as using information and technology to accomplish which of the following?

  1. Estimate an agency's yearly revenue and expenses for operating budget planning
  2. Restrain a patient who is confined against their will to a bounded physical area
  3. Determine a patient's legal competence to participate in formal court proceedings
  4. Communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate error, and support decision-making ✓

Why: The source defines informatics as using information and technology to communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate error, and support decision-making. This is also the QSEN informatics competency.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice

According to the source, the active phase of the first stage of labor begins at what cervical dilation?

  1. At 3 cm dilation
  2. At 4 cm dilation
  3. At 8 cm dilation
  4. At 6 cm dilation ✓

Why: The source states the active phase begins at six cm dilation and ends at full dilation of 10 cm, with contractions lasting 40-90 seconds every two to five minutes. The latent phase precedes it and ends when dilation reaches six cm.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.3 Labor

According to the source, up to what percentage of pediatric patients contract RSV in the first two years of life?

  1. Up to 50%
  2. Up to 25%
  3. Up to 70%
  4. Up to 90% ✓

Why: The source states up to 90% of pediatric patients contract RSV in the first two years of life, and because long-term immunity is not created, reinfection is frequent.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.11 Respiratory Viral Infections

A nurse is planning services for migrant farmworkers. According to the source, which strategy supports health services for this population?

  1. Requiring workers to travel to a distant central hospital
  2. Providing materials only in complex medical terminology
  3. Eliminating translation services to reduce costs
  4. Mobile medical units and portable medical records ✓

Why: The source lists successful strategies to support migrant worker health including culturally sensitive health education, educational materials at appropriate literacy levels, portable medical records and case management, mobile medical units, transportation services, and translation services.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

According to the source, when palpating the carotid pulses the nurse should:

  1. Palpate both carotid pulses at the same time to compare them
  2. Palpate one side at a time to avoid decreasing brain perfusion ✓
  3. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope on both sides at once
  4. Apply firm bilateral pressure for a full 60 seconds

Why: The source states carotid pulses should be palpated one side at a time to avoid decreasing perfusion of the brain. Bilateral comparison is used for all pulses EXCEPT the carotid.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 9.3 Cardiovascular Assessment

According to the source, telehealth is best described as which of the following?

  1. An in-person surgical procedure that is performed at a small clinic in a rural community
  2. A federal educational loan repayment program offered to health care provider professionals
  3. A specific type of government health insurance coverage available only to armed forces veterans
  4. The use of digital technologies to deliver medical care and health services across locations ✓

Why: The source defines telehealth as the use of digital technologies to deliver medical care, health education, and public health services by connecting multiple users in separate locations, improving access in underserved areas by removing barriers of time, distance, and provider scarcity.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

A patient had a vasectomy and asks when he can rely on it for contraception. According to the source, what teaching is correct?

  1. Use alternative birth control until a negative sperm count is obtained ✓
  2. Sperm is absent from the semen immediately after the procedure is done
  3. Contraception is fully guaranteed once two weeks have passed after surgery
  4. Semen testing is unnecessary after a no-scalpel vasectomy procedure

Why: The source instructs that patients should use alternative birth control until a negative sperm count is obtained. It states the semen won't contain sperm starting at least two months after a vasectomy, and semen must be tested 8-16 weeks afterward to confirm no sperm are present.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.7 Contraception

According to the source, a fibroid (also called a leiomyoma) is best described as which type of growth?

  1. A malignant tumor arising from the endometrial lining tissue
  2. A fluid-filled cyst that forms within the ovarian follicle
  3. An outpouching of the bladder wall into the vaginal canal
  4. A benign, solid tumor from the smooth muscle of the uterus ✓

Why: The source defines a fibroid, also called a leiomyoma, as a benign, solid tumor that develops from the smooth muscle tissue of the uterus. It notes about 50 percent of women with fibroids are asymptomatic.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.11 Fibroids

According to the source, peritoneal dialysis removes waste and excess fluid by using which structure as a natural filter?

  1. The dialyzer machine membrane located outside the patient's body
  2. A surgically created arteriovenous fistula in the arm
  3. The glomerular capillaries within the patient's own kidneys
  4. The peritoneum lining the abdominal cavity ✓

Why: The source states peritoneal dialysis uses the peritoneum, a membrane lining the abdominal cavity, as a natural filter, with dialysate introduced through an abdominal catheter and drained after a dwell time. Hemodialysis, by contrast, uses a dialyzer machine.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure

According to the source, which diagnostic test identifies areas of the lung that are inflamed or filled with fluid, called consolidation, providing visual confirmation of pneumonia?

  1. Sputum culture
  2. Complete blood count
  3. Arterial blood gas
  4. Chest X-ray ✓

Why: The source states a chest X-ray identifies areas of the lung that are inflamed or filled with fluid, called consolidation, providing visual confirmation of the infection and its extent. Sputum culture identifies the organism, CBC shows elevated WBCs, and ABG assesses gas exchange.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.7 Pneumonia

A patient's primary language is not English, and a family member offers to interpret the health history. According to the source, what should the nurse do?

  1. Obtain a medical translator before initiating the health history ✓
  2. Allow the family member to interpret in order to save time
  3. Proceed using only hand gestures and simple written English words
  4. Postpone the entire health history until the patient learns English

Why: The source directs the nurse to obtain a medical translator prior to initiating the health history when the patient's primary language is not English. A family member or care partner should not interpret, because the patient may not want them aware of health problems and they may not use correct medical terminology, causing miscommunication.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 2.2 Health History Basic Concepts

A common preprocedural maneuver to estimate NG insertion depth is described by the source as measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and then to which landmark?

  1. The umbilicus
  2. The suprasternal notch
  3. The xiphoid process ✓
  4. The lower left rib margin

Why: The source states a common maneuver is to measure the tube from the tip of the patient's nose to the earlobe and then against the throat down to the xiphoid process, about 1/2 to 1 inch below the sternal notch.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 5.2 Basic Concepts

According to the source, an expected outcome for a patient with acute renal failure is a gradual increase in urinary output maintaining a minimum of which amount, indicating improved renal perfusion?

  1. 30 mL/hour ✓
  2. 10 mL/hour
  3. 100 mL/hour
  4. 5 mL/hour

Why: The source lists an expected outcome of a gradual increase in urinary output to within normal limits, maintaining a minimum of 30 mL/hour, indicating improved renal perfusion and function within 24 hours. The other values are not the minimum stated.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure

According to the source, who is considered the founder of modern nursing practice and established the first nursing school in the world in 1860?

  1. Florence Nightingale ✓
  2. Clara Barton, who founded the American Red Cross society
  3. Virginia Henderson
  4. Dorothea Dix

Why: The source states Florence Nightingale is considered the founder of modern nursing practice; in 1860 she established the first nursing school in the world and promoted nurses as a professional, educated workforce.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 1.2 History and Foundation

A nurse completes an incident report after a patient fall. According to the source, the incident report:

  1. Is filed as a permanent part of the patient's medical record
  2. Should be used punitively to discipline the staff involved
  3. Replaces documentation of the event in the medical record
  4. Is not part of the medical record and should not be mentioned in it ✓

Why: The source states incident reports are not a part of the medical record and should not be mentioned in the medical record; however, the specific event, provider notification, and interventions should be documented in the medical record. Incident reports are a safety tool used to identify system issues, not to be used punitively.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 2.5 Documentation

A nurse reviews a patient's serum digoxin level. Which range does the source identify as the normal therapeutic range?

  1. 3.5 to 5.0 ng/mL
  2. 10 to 20 ng/mL
  3. 2 to 4 ng/mL
  4. 0.8 to 2 ng/mL ✓

Why: The source states the normal therapeutic range for serum digoxin is 0.8 to 2 ng/mL, and toxicity typically occurs above 2 ng/mL. The 3.5 to 5.0 value is the normal potassium level, and the other ranges are not digoxin therapeutic values in the text.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 6.7 Cardiac Glycosides

A patient two weeks postpartum develops hallucinations, delusions, and severe agitation. According to the source, what does this represent?

  1. A normal variation of the baby blues that will self-resolve
  2. A mild and temporary form of perinatal depression treated with rest
  3. A psychiatric emergency requiring immediate medical intervention ✓
  4. An expected response to sleep deprivation needing no action

Why: The source states postpartum psychosis is a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate medical intervention, involving hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, mania, agitation, and confusion, with risk for self-harm or harm to the infant.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 7.3 Types of Depression

The source states that kernicterus, or bilirubin-related brain damage, is caused by bilirubin levels greater than which value?

  1. Greater than 25 mg/dL ✓
  2. Greater than 15 mg/dL
  3. Greater than 20 mg/dL
  4. Greater than 40 mg/dL

Why: The source states kernicterus is brain damage caused by bilirubin levels greater than 25 mg/dL, and that levels greater than 30 mg/dL can cause irreversible brain damage.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period

According to the source's aspiration-reduction guidelines, at what interval should a nurse assess feeding tube placement and gastrointestinal tolerance during enteral feeding?

  1. Every hour
  2. Every eight hours
  3. Once every twelve hours
  4. Every four hours ✓

Why: The source's guidelines recommend assessing feeding tube placement at four-hour intervals and assessing for gastrointestinal intolerance at four-hour intervals, in addition to checking before each feeding or medication. The other intervals do not match the source guidance.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 14.3 Applying the Nursing Process

A nurse instructs a patient scheduled for surgery about fasting. For at least how long should the patient avoid food before the procedure?

  1. At least 2 hours
  2. At least 12 hours
  3. At least 24 hours before surgery
  4. At least 6 to 8 hours ✓

Why: The source states patients are typically advised to avoid food for at least 6 to 8 hours before the procedure. NPO status reduces the risk of aspiration during anesthesia by minimizing gastric secretions.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.3 Preoperative Nursing Care

A patient under general anesthesia develops tachycardia, rigidity of the jaw, hypotension, and tachypnea. The nurse recognizes these as early indications of which complication?

  1. Malignant hyperthermia ✓
  2. Unrecognized hypoventilation
  3. Anesthesia overdose
  4. Spinal headache

Why: The source lists early indications of malignant hyperthermia as tachycardia, muscle rigidity (particularly of the jaw and upper chest), hypotension, and tachypnea. An extremely elevated body temperature is a late sign.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery

A nurse realizes an earlier entry in the health care record contains an error. According to the source, which action is appropriate?

  1. Delete the entry so the record appears clean
  2. Never alter, delete, or falsify the record ✓
  3. Ask a colleague to rewrite the record entirely
  4. Add a false entry to correct the appearance of care

Why: The source states the health care record is a legal document and nurses must never alter, delete, or falsify it. Falsifying or altering records is professional misconduct (dishonesty), even for students.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Legal Implications

According to the source, what are the two most common causes of peptic ulcer disease?

  1. Viral infection and dehydration
  2. NSAID use and Helicobacter pylori infection ✓
  3. High-fiber diet and exercise
  4. Aspirin allergy and lactose intolerance

Why: The source states the most common causes of PUD are NSAID use and/or infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria. Other causes include severe illness or burns, chemotherapy or radiation, and certain cancers.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.10 Peptic Ulcer Disease

A child needs an injection. According to the source, how should the nurse describe this to the child?

  1. Tell the child they will simply get 'a quick shot'
  2. Avoid explaining what will happen
  3. Tell the child they are going to give them medicine ✓
  4. Tell the child it will not hurt at all

Why: The source advises against saying a child will get 'a shot' because some children associate that word with being shot with a gun. Instead, the nurse should tell the child they are going to give them medicine.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 14.2 Role of the Nurse When Caring for Ill or Hospitalized Pediatric Clients

A patient who used methamphetamine presents with tachycardia, hypertension, pupillary dilation, and psychomotor agitation. According to the source, these are signs of which type of intoxication?

  1. Stimulant intoxication ✓
  2. Opioid intoxication
  3. Alcohol intoxication
  4. Acute inhalant intoxication

Why: The source lists stimulant intoxication symptoms including tachycardia, hypertension, pupillary dilation, perspiration or chills, psychomotor agitation, and possible psychosis or hallucinations. Both use and withdrawal from amphetamines can cause psychosis.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.2 Substances: Use, Intoxication, and Overdose

The source notes NG tube placement may be contraindicated in patients with suspected head trauma because of the risk of misplacement through which structure?

  1. The fractured cribriform plate ✓
  2. The lower esophageal sphincter
  3. The pyloric sphincter
  4. The upper esophageal sphincter

Why: The source states the cribriform plate is a very thin bone that, if fractured, could provide a direct portal into the brain; for this reason NG placement in patients with suspected head trauma may be contraindicated, risking intracranial placement.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 5.2 Basic Concepts

According to the source, an environmental risk assessment for a patient at high risk of suicide identifies which of the following?

  1. The patient's genetic predisposition to mood disorders
  2. The therapeutic serum level of the patient's medications
  3. Physical environment features that could be used to attempt suicide ✓
  4. The patient's insurance coverage for follow-up care

Why: The source defines an environmental risk assessment as identifying physical environment features that could be used by patients to attempt suicide. Nurses then implement actions such as continuous monitoring and routinely removing objects that could be used for self-harm.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 1.6 Establishing Safety

A patient in Phase 3 of a crisis is yelling. Which nurse statement is an example of therapeutic limit-setting rather than a threat, according to the source?

  1. If you do not stop this behavior right now, I am going to call security immediately
  2. That type of disruptive behavior will absolutely not be tolerated on this unit at all
  3. Please sit down. I will have to call for assistance if you can't control your emotions ✓
  4. If you keep yelling at the staff like that, I will not be able to help you at all today

Why: The source contrasts limit-setting with threats. Limit-setting describes the desired behavior (for example, 'Please sit down. I will have to call for assistance if you can't control your emotions'), whereas making threats is nontherapeutic.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 3.5 Crisis and Crisis Intervention

The source states that approximately what proportion of neonates experience impaired transition requiring some intervention?

  1. Less than 1%
  2. About 25%
  3. About 50%
  4. Nearly 10% ✓

Why: The source states nearly 10% of neonates experience impaired transition requiring some intervention, with less than 1% requiring extensive resuscitation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.2 Physical Changes After Birth

A nurse reviews blood types for a patient needing transfusion. People with which blood type are referred to as universal blood donors?

  1. Type AB positive
  2. Type O negative ✓
  3. Type A negative
  4. Type B positive

Why: The source states type O blood does not have an antigen, so it can be given to a person with any blood type; people with type O negative blood are often referred to as universal blood donors. AB positive individuals are universal recipients.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 3.2 Basic Concepts

A nurse provides remote care to patients in a rural region using phone and video technology. According to the source, this care delivery method is known as which of the following?

  1. Inpatient acute care
  2. Assisted living
  3. Telehealth ✓
  4. Utilization review

Why: The source describes telehealth as remote care via phone or video, noting it is important in rural areas and during COVID-19. It is listed among the levels of care available to patients.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Health Care Economics

A nurse assesses a patient with hyperthyroidism. Based on the source, which findings are expected?

  1. Cold intolerance, constipation, weight gain, and bradycardia
  2. Weight gain, dry skin, hoarseness, and slow mental processing
  3. Hypothermia, severe bradycardia, and marked hypotension
  4. Tachycardia, heat intolerance, weight loss, and tremors ✓

Why: The source lists tachycardia, palpitations, heat intolerance, weight loss with increased appetite, tremors, and nervousness among manifestations of hyperthyroidism, reflecting an increased metabolic rate. Cold intolerance, constipation, and weight gain are hypothyroid findings.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 7.6 Thyroid Disorders

According to the source, what is the most common cause of pathological jaundice in the newborn?

  1. Positional plagiocephaly
  2. Colic and poor feeding
  3. Physiological red blood cell breakdown after birth
  4. Blood group incompatibility (ABO or Rh) ✓

Why: The source states the most common cause of pathological jaundice is blood group incompatibility (ABO or Rh factor), also called hemolytic disease of the newborn. Pathological jaundice rises earlier and faster than physiological jaundice.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period

A nurse leader anticipates barriers to a quality improvement project. Which of the following is identified in the source as a barrier to QI?

  1. Strong organizational support for change
  2. Abundant financial and staffing resources
  3. A well-integrated data management system
  4. Resistance to change among staff ✓

Why: The source lists barriers to QI including resistance to change, inadequate or fragmented data management systems, resource constraints, an unsupportive organizational culture, and regulatory or policy constraints. Strong support and abundant resources are facilitators, not barriers.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice

According to the source, which presentation is characteristic of placental abruption?

  1. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding occurring with a soft, relaxed uterus
  2. Sudden severe abdominal pain with or without dark red bleeding ✓
  3. Gradual pink mucus discharge without pain
  4. Absent contractions with no abdominal pain

Why: The source states signs of placental abruption include sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with or without dark red bleeding, and that the uterus may remain contracted without achieving a resting tone. Painless bright red bleeding is characteristic of placenta previa instead.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.7 Complications Associated With Labor

According to the source, what is the compression-to-ventilation ratio used during neonatal chest compressions?

  1. 5 compressions to 1 ventilation
  2. 15 compressions to 2 ventilations
  3. 3 compressions to 1 ventilation ✓
  4. 30 compressions to 2 ventilations

Why: The source states the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 3:1, which equals 90 compressions and 30 breaths per minute, using the two-thumb technique with fingers encircling the chest.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.9 Neonatal Resuscitation

Applying the acute-versus-chronic data cue to prioritize among patients, which patient generally takes priority?

  1. A patient with a sudden, new-onset change in condition ✓
  2. A patient with a stable, well-managed long-standing condition
  3. A patient with a chronic condition awaiting routine teaching
  4. A patient with a chronic condition needing scheduled medication

Why: The source states that acute/new/sudden conditions often take priority over stable chronic ones when using data cues for prioritization. Unexpected findings likewise warrant higher priority than expected ones.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Prioritization

According to the source, health disparities are best described as which of the following?

  1. Random variations in individual health that have no identifiable underlying cause
  2. Differences in health status that are caused only by a person's inherited genetics
  3. Differences in health status that affect all population groups exactly equally
  4. Health differences linked with social, economic, and/or environmental disadvantages ✓

Why: The source defines health disparities as health differences that are linked with social, economic, and/or environmental disadvantages, adversely affecting groups who experience greater obstacles to health based on characteristics such as socioeconomic status, age, disability, or others.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 16.2 Community Health Concepts

A hospitalized patient who stopped drinking develops agitation, fever, severe tachycardia, hypertension, and drenching sweats. According to the source, delirium tremens typically begin within which timeframe after the last drink?

  1. Within 1 to 2 hours after the last drink
  2. Between 48 and 96 hours after the last drink ✓
  3. Within 6 hours after the last drink
  4. After 2 weeks of abstinence

Why: The source states delirium tremens typically begin between 48 and 96 hours after the patient's last drink, with agitation and extreme autonomic hyperactivity including fever, severe tachycardia, hypertension, and drenching sweats.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.3 Withdrawal Management/Detoxification

A patient receiving IV heparin develops bleeding that requires reversal of heparinization. Which medication does the source identify for this purpose?

  1. Naloxone by intravenous push
  2. Protamine sulfate by slow infusion ✓
  3. Fresh frozen plasma alone
  4. Vitamin K administered orally

Why: The source states that when bleeding requires reversal of heparinization, protamine sulfate by slow infusion will neutralize heparin sodium. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin, and naloxone reverses opioids, so those options are incorrect.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 6.12 Blood Coagulation Modifiers

According to the source, before receiving a first dose of buprenorphine for opioid withdrawal, the patient must be in what state to avoid worsening symptoms?

  1. Fully abstinent from all opioids for a period of at least one week
  2. A state of mild to moderate withdrawal (COWS score greater than 10) ✓
  3. Acutely intoxicated with a recent large dose of opioids in their system
  4. Experiencing severe respiratory depression with a very slow breathing rate

Why: The source states buprenorphine can worsen opioid withdrawal if not administered carefully, so the patient must be in a state of mild to moderate withdrawal (COWS score greater than 10) before receiving their first dose, which is typically 2 to 4 mg sublingually.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.3 Withdrawal Management/Detoxification

A nurse is preparing a patient for surgery and notes that a preoperative sedative has been prescribed. Based on the source, what must occur regarding informed consent?

  1. Consent can be signed once the sedative takes effect
  2. Consent may be waived if a sedative is given
  3. Consent must be signed before the patient receives any sedation ✓
  4. The nurse may sign the consent for the patient after sedation

Why: The source states that once a patient has received any type of sedation, they cannot sign informed consent, and patients must demonstrate understanding before receiving any sedating preoperative medications. Consent must therefore be obtained beforehand.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery

The source states that only specifically trained or oncology certified nurses administer chemotherapy. Which PPE item does it list for nurse safety?

  1. Latex-free surgical cap
  2. Lead apron
  3. Sterile booties
  4. Nitrile gloves ✓

Why: The source lists PPE for chemotherapy safety as eye protection, masks, nitrile gloves (synthetic rubber that resists punctures and harsh chemicals), and a protective gown. Only specifically trained or oncology certified nurses administer chemotherapy.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.3 Cancer

A child is diagnosed with mild croup. According to the source, which medication may be prescribed to reduce swelling?

  1. Nebulized epinephrine
  2. Oral antibiotics
  3. Albuterol
  4. Dexamethasone ✓

Why: The source states patients with mild croup may be prescribed dexamethasone to reduce swelling. Moderate to severe croup may add epinephrine via nebulizer.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.8 Croup

A nurse is administering an over-the-counter psyllium fiber supplement to prevent constipation. According to the source, what is essential when giving this medication?

  1. Administer it with a small sip of water to avoid nausea
  2. Give it on an empty stomach at least one hour before food
  3. Mix it in a full 8-ounce glass of water to avoid the development of an intestinal obstruction ✓
  4. Withhold all of the patient's other oral fluids for two hours after giving the dose

Why: The source states that when administering bulk-forming fiber medications such as methylcellulose or psyllium, the nurse should mix them in a full 8-ounce glass of water to avoid the development of an intestinal obstruction. Increased fluids, dietary fiber, and activity are recommended to prevent constipation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 16.6 Constipation

A patient identified at risk for suicide is being discharged from an inpatient unit. Based on the source, why is providing follow-up information and a safety plan especially important at this time?

  1. Insurance regulations require this documentation before any discharge can be processed
  2. Discharge from the unit automatically eliminates the patient's ongoing risk of suicide
  3. Family members become the only people legally responsible for all follow-up care needs
  4. Suicide risk is high after discharge from psychiatric inpatient or emergency settings ✓

Why: The source states that a patient's risk for suicide is high after discharge from psychiatric inpatient or emergency department settings, and that developing a safety plan and providing crisis call center numbers can decrease suicidal behavior after the patient leaves the organization.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 1.6 Establishing Safety

According to the source, meningococcal meningitis is caused by which bacteria?

  1. Neisseria meningitidis ✓
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
  4. Staphylococcus aureus

Why: The source states meningococcal meningitis is a specific type of meningitis caused by the bacteria Neisseria meningitidis; it has a high mortality rate and is considered a medical emergency.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.13 Meningococcal Meningitis

Per the source, a simple febrile seizure is a single seizure that lasts less than how long?

  1. Less than 5 minutes
  2. Less than 30 minutes
  3. Less than 15 minutes ✓
  4. Less than 60 minutes

Why: The source states simple febrile seizures are a single seizure lasting less than 15 minutes; complex febrile seizures are multiple seizures over 24 hours or a single seizure lasting longer than 15 minutes.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.10 Febrile Seizures

A nurse is feeding a newborn with a cleft lip and cleft palate before surgical repair. According to the source, in which position should the newborn be fed?

  1. Lying flat and completely supine
  2. Prone with the head turned to one side
  3. Held in an upright position ✓
  4. Side-lying with the head positioned lower

Why: The source states that to ensure adequate nutrition and reduce aspiration risk, the newborn with cleft lip and/or cleft palate should be fed in an upright position. Alternative feeding methods such as special nipples are also used because these infants can easily aspirate formula or breastmilk.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.5 Cleft Lip and Cleft Palate

Under the Patient's Bill of Rights, which document allows a patient to designate a surrogate decision-maker for health care?

  1. An advance directive such as a living will, health care proxy, or durable power of attorney for health care ✓
  2. A living will only, because it must name a specific proxy person
  3. A business associate agreement between the hospital and the payer
  4. A signed research participation consent form completed on admission that designates the surrogate decision-maker

Why: The Patient's Bill of Rights states the patient has the right to have an advance directive - such as a living will, health care proxy, or durable power of attorney for health care - concerning treatment or designating a surrogate decision-maker, and the hospital will honor its intent to the extent permitted by law.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 3.3 Patient's Bill of Rights

A term patient reports pink-tinged mucus discharge. According to the source, how should the nurse interpret this compared with bright red bleeding?

  1. Both findings are normal signs of impending labor
  2. Bloody show must be urgently reported, but bright red bleeding is entirely expected here
  3. Bloody show is expected, but bright red bleeding must be reported immediately ✓
  4. Both findings require immediate emergency cesarean birth

Why: The source describes bloody show as pink, brown, or reddish mucus discharge that is a normal early sign of impending labor, and warns that bright red bleeding or trickling blood may indicate a placental complication and the provider should be notified immediately.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.3 Labor

According to the source, hepatitis is considered chronic when the inflammation lasts for what duration?

  1. Over two weeks
  2. Over six months ✓
  3. Over one month
  4. Over three months

Why: The source states that when hepatitis lasts six months or less it is considered acute, and when it lasts over six months it is considered chronic.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.15 Hepatitis

According to the source, what dose of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered at 28 weeks of pregnancy to an Rh-negative patient?

  1. 50 micrograms
  2. 150 micrograms
  3. 600 micrograms
  4. 300 micrograms ✓

Why: The source states the dosage of Rho(D) immune globulin is 300 micrograms at 28 weeks of pregnancy and 50 micrograms after a first-trimester miscarriage or abortion. The 50-microgram dose applies only to early loss, not the 28-week dose.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.9 Second Trimester Prenatal Care

According to the source, all newborns of mothers with diabetes have an increased risk of which cluster of complications after birth?

  1. Hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, and neonatal polycythemia
  2. Anencephaly, spina bifida, and other neural tube defects
  3. Polycythemia, macrocephaly, and very low birth weight
  4. Hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and respiratory distress syndrome ✓

Why: The source states all newborns of mothers with diabetes have an increased risk of hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia, respiratory distress syndrome, hypocalcemia, and hypomagnesemia after birth.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.7 Maternal Diabetes

A child with conjunctivitis has purulent discharge that sticks to the eyelashes. According to the source, this finding is most consistent with which cause?

  1. A viral cause
  2. A bacterial cause ✓
  3. An allergic cause
  4. A toxin exposure

Why: The source states that with a bacterial cause, discharge is purulent and may stick to the eyelashes, whereas viral and allergic forms have a watery discharge.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.6 Conjunctivitis

A patient's spouse asks the nurse for the patient's lab results. According to confidentiality principles in the source, what must the nurse do before sharing this information?

  1. Obtain written permission from the patient before disclosing to the spouse ✓
  2. Share the requested lab results with the spouse immediately, since the spouse is an immediate family member
  3. Confirm only whether the patient has been admitted
  4. Leave the results in a voicemail for the spouse

Why: The source states that any time information is shared with anyone but the patient, written permission is required; sharing a spouse's lab results without permission is a violation. Even confirming admission can be a breach, and protected information should never be left in a voicemail.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, Legal and Ethical Considerations

A community nurse cares for patients with mental illness or HIV. According to the source, which barrier may impede their ability to seek or receive appropriate care?

  1. Social stigma associated with their condition ✓
  2. Excess care coordination across providers
  3. Overabundance of specialist appointments
  4. Guaranteed access to fragmented-free care

Why: The source states individuals with specific chronic conditions such as mental illness or HIV may experience social stigma that impedes their ability to seek or receive appropriate health care, and often encounter fragmented care and lack of care coordination.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

A patient's blood glucose is 60 mg/dL and they are alert and able to swallow. According to the 15-15 rule described in the source, what should the nurse do?

  1. Give 50 grams of carbohydrate and recheck in one hour
  2. Administer intravenous insulin immediately to correct the low blood glucose reading
  3. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate and recheck the blood glucose after 15 minutes ✓
  4. Withhold all food and monitor for 15 minutes

Why: The source describes the 15-15 rule: provide 15 grams of carbohydrate and recheck the blood glucose after 15 minutes; if still below 70 mg/dL, repeat until it is above 70 mg/dL. Fifteen grams of carbohydrate includes options like 4 ounces of juice or regular soda, hard candy, or glucose tablets.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 19.2 Blood Glucose Monitoring

According to the source, the normal serum potassium level typically ranges from:

  1. 136 to 145 mEq/L
  2. 8.6 to 10.2 mg/dL
  3. 1.5 to 2.4 mEq/L
  4. 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L ✓

Why: The source states potassium levels normally range from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. The 136-145 mEq/L range is sodium, 8.6-10.2 mg/dL is calcium, and 1.5-2.4 mEq/L is magnesium.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 15.4 Electrolytes

According to the source, Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) is caused by which chromosomal abnormality?

  1. A missing chromosome 21
  2. An extra chromosome number 18
  3. An extra chromosome number 21 ✓
  4. A single palmar crease gene

Why: The source states Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) is a genetic condition caused by an extra chromosome number 21 and is the most common chromosome problem diagnosed in the United States.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.6 Congenital Conditions

According to the source, which statement about the low transverse cesarean incision is correct?

  1. It is made vertically along the midline of the abdomen
  2. It is used only in emergencies due to higher complication risk
  3. It carries a higher risk of uterine rupture in later pregnancies
  4. It is the most common incision and can allow future vaginal births ✓

Why: The source states the low transverse incision is the most common type, made horizontally just above the pubic hairline, is cosmetically favorable with less pain and fewer complications, and can make future vaginal births possible. The vertical incision is reserved for emergencies and carries higher rupture risk.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.8 Complications During the Second Stage of Labor

The source describes three mechanisms in the development of a DVT, referred to as Virchow's triad. Which of the following is one of these three mechanisms?

  1. Arterial calcification
  2. A decreased platelet count
  3. An elevated blood glucose
  4. Venous stasis ✓

Why: The source lists venous stasis, hypercoagulability, and injury to a vein as Virchow's triad. Arterial calcification, low platelets, and elevated glucose are not part of the triad described.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.11 Deep Vein Thrombosis