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Checked 11 October 2026 from the official sources below. Rules and fees change, so confirm with Pearson VUE before you book.
Lantern is a $29 bank of original questions for the Gulf nursing licensing exams. Here is how it compares with the question banks nurses usually consider, including where they are the better choice. See the comparison with Prometric Gulf, Medical Exam Books, eNursing Portal and others.
The exam is DOH does not publish the question count or timing publicly; it gives the format to approved applicants (exams are delivered by Pearson VUE and booked through TAMM). Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.
DOH Abu Dhabi does not publish a public pass mark. We score your practice against a 65% benchmark as a conservative readiness guide. Confirm current requirements with DOH before your exam.
No — and that matters. Selling ‘recalled’ or ‘actual’ exam questions violates the confidentiality agreement every candidate signs and can put your licence application at risk. Every Lantern Prep question is original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and grounded in open, authoritative nursing references, with the source cited in every rationale.
The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.
The core nursing content is shared across SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, and QCHP — the exams test the same registered-nurse fundamentals. Each regulator page packages the bank to that exam’s length and timing.
$29, one time, lifetime access. No subscription, no account needed.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. Lantern Prep is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by any regulator or testing provider.
It is organised into 4 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing and Nursing Management and Leadership. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 6 July 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
A patient has a hemorrhagic stroke caused by hypertension. According to the source, blood pressure is reduced gradually to what target using agents such as a beta-blocker or ACE inhibitor?
Why: The source states the most common cause of hemorrhagic stroke is hypertension, and blood pressure is reduced gradually to 150/90 mmHg using a beta-blocker, ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, or hydralazine.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.9 Cerebrovascular Accident
According to the source, what keeps an indwelling (Foley) catheter retained in the bladder after insertion?
Why: The source defines an indwelling (Foley) catheter as one that remains in place after insertion and is retained in the bladder by an inflated balloon, draining continuously into a collection bag. The curved tip describes a coude catheter and abdominal-wall placement describes a suprapubic catheter.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 21.2 Basic Concepts (urinary elimination devices)
A nurse is asked to report compliance with core measures. What are core measures as described in the source?
Why: The source defines core measures as national standards of care and treatment for common conditions, proven to reduce complications, with hospitals reporting compliance to the hospital accreditation body and health authorities. Examples include stroke, cardiac care, and immunizations.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice
A nurse prepares to draw up a prescribed insulin dose. Which action follows safe practice described in the source?
Why: The source states insulin syringes are marked in units, not milliliters, because insulin is prescribed in units, and a regular mL-marked syringe should never be used for insulin. Although insulin syringe caps are orange, the nurse must still verify the markings are in units to prevent a medication error.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 18.2 Basic Concepts
A nurse applies anti-embolism stockings and sequential compression devices to a preoperative patient. These devices help prevent which complication?
Why: The source states compression stockings and sequential compression devices prevent venous stasis and possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by providing compression to the legs.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.3 Preoperative Nursing Care
A patient develops pneumonia three days after admission to the hospital for another condition. According to the source's classifications, this is best described as which type of pneumonia?
Why: The source defines hospital-acquired pneumonia as pneumonia that began during or immediately following a stay in a health care setting. Community-acquired begins in the community; aspiration follows inhalation of material; ventilator-associated occurs during or after ventilator use.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.7 Pneumonia
According to the source, which agent is a common option for pediatric bowel disimpaction (cleaning out the bowels)?
Why: The source states a common option for pediatric patients is the administration of polyethylene glycol to clean out the bowels, followed by maintenance therapy with oral stool softeners and/or laxatives.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.7 Constipation (Pediatric)
According to the source, a febrile seizure occurs in children between six months and five years old who have a fever of at least what temperature?
Why: The source defines a febrile seizure as a generalized seizure in pediatric patients between six months and five years old who have a fever of 100.4 F (38 C) or greater, not associated with a CNS infection.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.10 Febrile Seizures
A QI team is collecting baseline fall-rate data and setting a goal to decrease falls by 10% in one year with a defined timeline. Which PDSA phase does this represent?
Why: The source describes the Plan phase as identifying the focus and what to measure, collecting baseline data, and setting goals and a timeline (for example, decrease fall rate 10% in one year). Implementation occurs in the Do phase.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice
During an ISBARR report, the nurse states, 'The incision has 4 cm of redness, is warm and tender, and I am concerned it may be becoming infected.' Which ISBARR component does this represent?
Why: The source's ISBARR structure defines the Assessment component as sharing abnormal assessment findings and the nurse's evaluation of the current situation, which matches describing incision findings and expressing concern about possible infection.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, Communicating With Health Care Team Members
A patient with hepatitis asks which over-the-counter medication to avoid because it adversely affects the liver. Which does the source specifically identify?
Why: The source states that medications which adversely affect the liver are avoided, such as acetaminophen and paracetamol. It also lists aspirin and sulfonamides among medications discussed in patient teaching.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.15 Hepatitis
According to the source, which statement about maternal age and Down syndrome is accurate?
Why: The source states that although maternal age of 35 years or older increases the risk of Down syndrome, over half of newborns with Down syndrome are born to patients younger than 35.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.6 Congenital Conditions
According to the source, vascular access for hemodialysis is typically established through which of the following?
Why: The source states hemodialysis vascular access is typically established through a surgically created arteriovenous fistula, arteriovenous graft, or central venous catheter, and these access sites are only used for dialysis. A peritoneal catheter is used for peritoneal dialysis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure
A patient taking lithium asks the nurse about pain relief options. According to the source, which type of medication is NOT recommended because it increases lithium levels?
Why: The source states that NSAIDs are not recommended for patients taking lithium because they increase lithium levels, which raises the risk of toxicity.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 6.4 Mood Stabilizer - Lithium
According to the source, a vulnerable population is best defined as a group of individuals who are at increased risk for which of the following?
Why: The source defines a vulnerable population as a group of individuals who are at increased risk for health problems and health disparities, often with limited access to health care services.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations
According to the source, the initial resuscitation steps use the mnemonic TABC, which stands for what?
Why: The source states the initial resuscitation steps use the mnemonic TABC for Temperature, Airway, Breathing, and Circulation, beginning with drying the baby and placing them under a radiant warmer.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.9 Neonatal Resuscitation
According to the source, which of the following is an example of an adaptive emotion-focused coping strategy?
Why: The source lists emotion-focused coping (an adaptive strategy) as including mindfulness, meditation, yoga, humor, spiritual pursuits, physical activity, breathing exercises, and social support. Avoidance, withdrawal, and substance misuse are listed as maladaptive responses.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 9.2 Basic Concepts
According to the source, cerebral palsy is best described as which of the following?
Why: The source states cerebral palsy (CP) is a group of disorders that affects the ability to move and maintain balance and posture, and is the most common motor disability in childhood, caused by abnormal brain development or damage.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.22 Other Pediatric Disorders
A nurse teaches a patient with CKD who has high potassium levels about foods to limit. According to the source, which foods should be limited?
Why: The source states that for patients with CKD and high potassium levels, intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, potatoes, tomatoes, and dried fruits should be limited. The other foods are not identified as high-potassium items to restrict.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.6 Chronic Kidney Disease
According to the source, over-the-counter (OTC) medications:
Why: The source states OTC medications do not require a prescription, can be bought at a store, may be used by multiple individuals, and are regulated as medicines by the national drug regulatory authority. Some prescription medications are available OTC in smaller doses.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology, 1.8 Medication Types
A postoperative patient had an indwelling catheter removed. According to the source, within how many hours should the patient be anticipated to void?
Why: The source states that if an indwelling catheter was placed for surgery and removed, the patient should be anticipated to void within eight hours of removal; otherwise additional interventions such as bladder scanning are required.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care
A nurse frustrated with a coworker says, 'I feel frustrated spending the first part of my shift decluttering our patients' rooms. Help me understand why it is a challenge to keep things organized during your shift?' According to the source, this is an example of which communication style?
Why: The source defines assertive communication as conveying facts and the sender's feelings without disrespecting the receiver, typically using 'I' messages. This contrasts with aggressive communication, which uses 'you' messages that can feel like a verbal attack.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 2.2 Basic Communication Concepts
The source notes that pregnant patients may not show early signs of hypovolemia during hemorrhage. What is the stated reason?
Why: The source states pregnant patients have 50 percent more blood volume than a nonpregnant person, so they may not exhibit signs of hypovolemia until a significant amount of blood has been lost. Early signs include decreased BP and increased pulse and respiratory rates.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.3 Hemorrhage (Perinatal)
According to the American Heart Association as cited in the source, what is the most important priority for newborn survival during resuscitation?
Why: The source states that according to the American Heart Association, the most important priority for newborn survival is the establishment of adequate lung inflation and ventilation after birth.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.9 Neonatal Resuscitation
According to the source, how does the nurse correctly perform fundal massage to prevent uterine inversion?
Why: The source states fundal massage is performed by placing one hand on the fundus while the other hand supports the lower uterine segment near the symphysis pubis to prevent uterine inversion. The goal is to make the uterus contract into a small, hard ball.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.3 Hemorrhage (Perinatal)
According to the source, a patient with bacterial pharyngitis is no longer infectious after how long of antibiotic therapy?
Why: The source states the patient is no longer infectious after 24 hours of antibiotic therapy.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.7 Pharyngitis, Tonsillitis, & Adenoiditis
Before an epidural is placed, the nurse anticipates an intervention to reduce the risk of hypotension. According to the source, what is administered?
Why: The source states that because hypotension is a side effect of epidural anesthesia, an IV fluid bolus of 500 to 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer's or normal saline is started 10 to 60 minutes prior to epidural insertion. Ephedrine is used to treat hypotension only if boluses fail.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.6 Pain Management During Labor and Delivery
According to the source, health disparities are best described as which of the following?
Why: The source defines health disparities as health differences that are linked with social, economic, and/or environmental disadvantages, adversely affecting groups who experience greater obstacles to health based on characteristics such as socioeconomic status, age, disability, or others.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 16.2 Community Health Concepts
Per the source, a fibroadenoma of the breast is best described as which type of finding?
Why: The source describes fibroadenomas as painless, solid, noncancerous tumors found in breast tissue, most common in women between 14 and 35 years old. They are typically well-defined, round, and rubbery, and usually less than 2.5 centimeters in diameter.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.4 Benign Breast Disorders
A patient is receiving continuous enteral tube feeding. According to the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses guidelines cited in the source, how should the head of the bed be positioned to reduce aspiration risk?
Why: The source cites the AACN recommendation to maintain the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees unless contraindicated to reduce the risk of aspiration, along with using sedatives sparingly and assessing tube placement and GI intolerance at four-hour intervals. Aspiration of gastric contents is the most serious complication of enteral feeding.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 17.2 Basic Concepts of Enteral Tubes
According to the source, the three main areas of functional mobility are bed mobility, ambulation, and:
Why: The source states the three main areas of functional mobility are bed mobility, transferring, and ambulation. Transferring is the action of a patient moving from one surface to another, such as from a bed into a chair.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 13.2 Mobility Basic Concepts
A nursing student is reviewing pharmacokinetics. Which sequence correctly lists the four stages a medication passes through in the body?
Why: The source defines pharmacokinetics as the four stages of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, abbreviated ADME. Absorption occurs first as the drug enters circulation, then distribution, then metabolism (breakdown), then excretion. The other orderings rearrange these stages incorrectly.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 1.2 Pharmacokinetics
A nurse sets up a primary IV administration set for a patient. At which fill level should the drip chamber be maintained?
Why: The source states the drip chamber allows air to rise out from the fluid so it is not passed to the patient, and it should be kept 1/4 to 1/2 full of solution.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 1.2 Basic Concepts of Venipuncture and Intravenous Therapy
A pregnant patient takes an iron supplement and an antacid for heartburn. According to the source, what should the nurse teach?
Why: The source states antacids are taken with or immediately after meals but should NOT be taken with iron because they decrease iron absorption. Antacids are taken with or after meals, not two hours before, and stimulant laxatives are not recommended in pregnancy.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.5 Common Discomforts of Pregnancy
According to the source, what is the most common indication for placement of a nasogastric tube?
Why: The source states the most common indication for NG tube placement is to decompress the stomach of a patient with a distal bowel obstruction or ileus, keeping the stomach empty until normal peristalsis returns.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 5.2 Basic Concepts
The nurse suspects uterine atony after birth. According to the source, what are the first nursing actions?
Why: The source states that if uterine atony is suspected, the nurse initiates the PPH protocol, starts vigorous fundal massage, and instructs the patient to empty her bladder because a full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting efficiently. Methylergonovine is never given IV.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.9 Complications During the Third Stage of Labor
A patient who used cannabis presents with enlarged conjunctival vessels, increased appetite, dry mouth, and tachycardia. According to the source, these are signs of which type of intoxication?
Why: The source lists signs and symptoms of cannabis intoxication as enlarged conjunctival vessels, increased appetite, dry mouth, and tachycardia.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.2 Substances: Use, Intoxication, and Overdose
According to the source, which statement about delirium is correct?
Why: The source states delirium usually starts suddenly, can indicate the onset of a life-threatening medical condition, and resolves as the underlying condition is effectively treated. Advanced age makes individuals more vulnerable to delirium.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.2 Psychosis and Delirium
A patient's cast is found to be too tight and is restricting blood flow, causing signs of acute compartment syndrome. According to the source, what is the indicated action in this case?
Why: The source states ACS can be caused by a cast being too tight and restricting blood flow, in which case the cast is removed. Otherwise, treatment often requires emergency fasciotomy.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 10.6 Fracture
A patient has an elevated, expansive mood with increased energy lasting four days but no marked impairment and no need for hospitalization. According to the source, this describes which type of episode?
Why: The source defines a hypomanic episode as abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased activity lasting at least four consecutive days, but which is not severe enough to cause marked impairment or require hospitalization.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 8.2 Basic Concepts of Bipolar Disorders
A patient on long-term first-generation antipsychotic therapy shows lip smacking, puckering, eye blinking, and grimacing. According to the source, these hallmark symptoms indicate which condition?
Why: The source states tardive dyskinesia is a syndrome of movement disorders that can occur with first-generation antipsychotics, with hallmark symptoms of smacking and puckering lips, eye blinking, grimacing, and twitching. It can persist despite discontinuation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.3 Schizophrenia
According to the source, which nursing action helps prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in the postoperative patient?
Why: The source states early ambulation promotes expansion of lungs and movement of secretions, and teaching incentive spirometry and coughing/deep breathing helps prevent atelectasis (collapse of alveoli) and pneumonia.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care
A newborn is diagnosed with esophageal atresia awaiting surgery. According to the source, what is the appropriate feeding status?
Why: The source states the neonate with esophageal atresia is NPO with no oral or gastric feedings or medications, and nutrition is provided by parenteral nutrition until surgical repair.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.6 Congenital and Genetic Disorders
While assisting a patient to eat, the nurse notices the patient begins coughing and gagging during swallowing. What is the priority nursing action per the source?
Why: The source states that if any signs of difficulty swallowing occur, such as coughing or gagging, the nurse should stop the meal and notify the provider of suspected swallowing difficulties. Continuing to feed or laying the patient flat would increase aspiration risk.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 14.3 Applying the Nursing Process
A nurse makes an error while using paper documentation. According to the source, the correct way to fix it is to:
Why: The source states that in the event of a charting error on paper, the nurse should draw a single line through the error and write 'mistaken entry' above the line with their initials. Errors should never be erased, scribbled out, or covered with white-out.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 2.5 Documentation
A patient who used methamphetamine presents with tachycardia, hypertension, pupillary dilation, and psychomotor agitation. According to the source, these are signs of which type of intoxication?
Why: The source lists stimulant intoxication symptoms including tachycardia, hypertension, pupillary dilation, perspiration or chills, psychomotor agitation, and possible psychosis or hallucinations. Both use and withdrawal from amphetamines can cause psychosis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.2 Substances: Use, Intoxication, and Overdose
A nurse is caring for a patient who had abdominal surgery under general anesthesia. Regarding paralytic ileus, when are the patient's diet orders typically advanced per the source?
Why: The source states patients who have undergone abdominal surgery or received general anesthesia are at increased risk for paralytic ileus, and because of its common occurrence in postoperative patients, diet orders are not upgraded until the patient is able to pass gas. Nurses routinely monitor for symptoms such as distention, inability to pass gas, and vomiting.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 16.6 Constipation
A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. According to the source, this procedure requires which type of gloves?
Why: The source states sterile (surgical) gloves are used for invasive procedures or when contact with a sterile site is anticipated, such as central line dressing changes, insertion of urinary catheters, and invasive surgical procedures. Clean gloves are used when there is a risk of contact with body fluids.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 4.3 Aseptic Technique
A patient arrives at the emergency department with suspected stroke. Which diagnostic test does the source identify as typically the first performed to determine if a hemorrhagic stroke is occurring?
Why: The source states a CT scan without contrast is typically the first diagnostic test performed for a suspected CVA to determine if a hemorrhagic stroke is occurring. If hemorrhage is ruled out, further tests identify potential causes of an ischemic stroke.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.9 Cerebrovascular Accident
A patient receiving cancer treatment develops changes in cognition and weakness. The source lists hypercalcemia as an oncological emergency at what serum calcium level?
Why: The source lists hypercalcemia as an oncological emergency with a serum calcium level greater than 10.5 mg/dL, along with changes in cognition, weakness, and nausea. Treatment includes aggressive hydration, loop diuretics, and bisphosphonates.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.3 Cancer
A nurse calculates a patient's BMI as 27.5. According to the interpretation ranges in the source, how is this value classified?
Why: The source interprets BMI 25-29.9 as overweight. A value under 18.5 is underweight, 18.5-24.9 is the desirable range, and 30 or greater is obese, so 27.5 falls in the overweight category.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 14.3 Applying the Nursing Process
A nurse uses electronic systems for systematic data collection, analysis, and secure storage to support a quality project. According to the source, this reflects which benefit of informatics?
Why: The source states informatics supports quality improvement through systematic data collection, analysis, and secure storage, in addition to improving patient safety, reducing delays, reducing waste, and promoting patient-centered care.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice
According to the source, what distinguishes an omphalocele from gastroschisis?
Why: The source states in omphalocele the organs stick out through the umbilicus and are covered in a thin, nearly transparent sac, whereas gastroschisis is a hole in the abdominal wall beside the umbilicus with the intestines exposed and not covered by a sac.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.6 Congenital and Genetic Disorders
A patient at 8 weeks' gestation asks how to manage morning sickness. Which self-care measure is supported by the source?
Why: The source recommends small frequent snacks every one to two hours, avoiding fluids with meals, ginger, dry toast, saltine crackers, vitamin B6, and taking prenatal vitamins at night. Drinking fluids with meals and taking vitamins in the morning are contrary to the guidance given.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.5 Common Discomforts of Pregnancy
A patient receives an IV antibiotic that requires trough-level monitoring. When should the nurse expect the trough blood level to be drawn?
Why: The source defines a trough level as drawn when the drug is at its lowest in the bloodstream, right before the next dose is given. A peak level (not trough) is drawn when the medication is at its highest level. Correct timing of these draws with administration is essential.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 1.10 Medication Safety
According to the source, what dose of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered at 28 weeks of pregnancy to an Rh-negative patient?
Why: The source states the dosage of Rho(D) immune globulin is 300 micrograms at 28 weeks of pregnancy and 50 micrograms after a first-trimester miscarriage or abortion. The 50-microgram dose applies only to early loss, not the 28-week dose.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.9 Second Trimester Prenatal Care
A patient who has been drinking presents with slurred speech, incoordination, unsteady gait, and nystagmus. According to the source, these are signs of which condition?
Why: The source lists signs and symptoms of alcohol intoxication as slurred speech, incoordination, unsteady gait, nystagmus, and impairment in attention or memory.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.2 Substances: Use, Intoxication, and Overdose
A nurse cares for a patient after a thyroidectomy who develops numbness, tingling, and muscle cramping with positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs. According to the source, this complication is caused by which of the following?
Why: The source states hypoparathyroidism can occur due to unintended removal of or trauma to the parathyroid glands during surgery, causing low serum calcium with numbness, tingling, muscle cramping, and Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs, treated with calcium and vitamin D. Laryngeal nerve injury causes hoarseness, not hypocalcemia.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 7.6 Thyroid Disorders
A nurse is deciding whether feeding may be assigned to a UAP. For which patient is feeding NOT a routine task that can simply be assigned to the UAP?
Why: The source states feeding is routine UAP care and can be assigned, BUT for a patient after a stroke (CVA) or with dysphagia/swallowing difficulty it is not routine and cannot be assigned to UAP; the RN performs it or delegates to a UAP with additional feeding-assistance training.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Delegation and Supervision
Two days after a femur fracture, a patient develops respiratory distress, altered mental status, a petechial rash, and fever. The source associates these findings with which complication?
Why: The source states fat embolism syndrome symptoms include respiratory distress, altered mental status, petechial rash, and fever, caused by fat globules from yellow bone marrow entering the bloodstream.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 10.6 Fracture
According to the source, the sinoatrial (SA) node is the heart's natural pacemaker with an intrinsic rate of which range?
Why: The source states the SA node paces at 60-100 beats per minute. The AV node paces at 40-60, and the Purkinje fibers pace at 20-40 if other pacemakers fail.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 7.2 ECG Basic Concepts
According to the source's 2017 blood pressure categories, Stage 1 Hypertension is defined as a systolic pressure of:
Why: The source's Table 3.2 defines Stage 1 Hypertension as systolic 130-139 or diastolic 80-89. 120-129/<80 is Elevated, 140+/90+ is Stage 2, and >180/>120 is hypertensive crisis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 3.2 Blood Pressure Basics
According to the source, patients are encouraged to schedule their first prenatal visit at which point?
Why: The source states patients are encouraged to schedule their first prenatal visit sometime between 8 and 12 weeks of gestation. The other windows are not the recommended range stated in the text.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.6 Prenatal Care
A patient in the emergency department is placed in behavioral restraints for violent behavior not ordered by their treating physician. According to the source, a physician or licensed independent practitioner must see and evaluate the need for the restraint within:
Why: The source states that for behavioral restraints, a physician or licensed independent practitioner must see and evaluate the need for the restraint or seclusion within one hour after initiation. The 4-hour and 24-hour figures refer to order duration and renewal limits, not the evaluation window.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 5.7 Restraints
According to the source, a Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care (DPOAHC) does which of the following?
Why: The source defines a Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care as a person chosen to make health care decisions if the patient is incapacitated (usually a primary plus an alternate), who decides as the person would decide for themselves. It is distinct from a financial power of attorney.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Legal Implications
According to the source, which virus is the leading cause of diarrhea?
Why: The source states diarrhea often has a viral cause with norovirus being the leading culprit, though rotavirus and other pathogens are also common in daycare centers.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.9 Diarrhea
According to the source, what maintains the corpus luteum in early pregnancy until the placenta takes over progesterone production?
Why: The source states that human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) produced by the fertilized egg maintains the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone until mid-pregnancy when the placenta begins producing progesterone. Increased estrogen and progesterone actually block FSH and LH secretion.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.4 Changes During Pregnancy
A nurse receives a written order containing an ISMP error-prone abbreviation such as 'qd'. According to the source, what is the appropriate action?
Why: The source states that if a nurse receives a prescription containing an error-prone abbreviation, it should be clarified with the provider and the order rewritten without the abbreviation. These abbreviations are frequently misinterpreted and should never be used, so administering or transcribing them as written is unsafe.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 2.5 Preventing Medication Errors
According to the source, what is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?
Why: The source states bronchiolitis is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), though it can also be caused by rhinovirus, metapneumovirus, adenovirus, coronavirus, and parainfluenza virus.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.10 Bronchiolitis
A nurse plans to administer prescribed cefazolin before a patient's surgery. Approximately how long before the incision should this antibiotic be given?
Why: The source states antibiotics are typically given approximately 60 minutes prior to the incision to ensure adequate levels are present to combat bacteria introduced during surgery.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.3 Preoperative Nursing Care
The source states that kernicterus, or bilirubin-related brain damage, is caused by bilirubin levels greater than which value?
Why: The source states kernicterus is brain damage caused by bilirubin levels greater than 25 mg/dL, and that levels greater than 30 mg/dL can cause irreversible brain damage.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period
According to the source, an osmotic laxative such as magnesium citrate produces a bowel movement by which mechanism?
Why: The source explains that an osmotic laxative like magnesium citrate attracts and binds with water, working to pull water content into the bowel and increasing the likelihood of a bowel movement. This is an example of a drug acting at a non-specific site.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology, 1.7 Pharmacodynamics
According to the source, all patients of which age group admitted for acute health care should be screened for suicidal ideation with a validated tool?
Why: The source states that all patients aged 12 and older admitted for acute health care should be screened for suicidal ideation with a validated tool, such as the Patient Safety Screener, because coexisting mental health issues can cause suicidal ideation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 1.6 Establishing Safety
A nurse leader anticipates barriers to a quality improvement project. Which of the following is identified in the source as a barrier to QI?
Why: The source lists barriers to QI including resistance to change, inadequate or fragmented data management systems, resource constraints, an unsupportive organizational culture, and regulatory or policy constraints. Strong support and abundant resources are facilitators, not barriers.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice
A caregiver has been using an older adult's money and property for their own benefit without authorization. According to the source, this is an example of which type of elder abuse?
Why: The source defines financial abuse as the illegal, unauthorized, or improper use of money, benefits, belongings, property, or assets for the benefit of someone other than the individual.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 15.4 Abuse and Neglect
According to the staging table in the source, Stage 5 (end-stage) chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR of which value?
Why: The source's staging table defines Stage 5 (kidney failure or end-stage) as a GFR less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m squared. Stage 1 is 90 or higher, Stage 2 is 60-89, and Stage 3 is 30-59.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.6 Chronic Kidney Disease
A nurse reviews the chart of a patient newly diagnosed with an acute condition requiring urgent surgery. Within which time frame after diagnosis are urgent surgeries generally performed?
Why: According to the source, urgent surgeries are necessary for the patient's health and generally performed within 24 to 48 hours of medical diagnosis of an acute condition, such as an appendectomy. Emergent surgeries are performed immediately.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery
A nurse states that a Just Culture means no one is ever held accountable. Which statement correctly describes the limits of Just Culture per the source?
Why: The source states that Just Culture does NOT tolerate conscious disregard of clear risks or gross misconduct such as falsifying a record or working intoxicated. Consequences are based on the behavior category: human error, at-risk, or reckless.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Leadership and Management
After surgical repair of coarctation of the aorta, an infant continues to have hypertension. According to the source, which calcium channel blocker is used safely to control blood pressure postoperatively in this situation?
Why: The source states nicardipine is used safely and effectively in infants to reduce blood pressure postoperatively after certain surgeries where strict blood pressure control is essential, such as repair of coarctation of the aorta. Up to 30% of infants continue to have hypertension after repair.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.5 Applying the Nursing Process to Congenital Heart Defects
For a patient with suspected fat embolism syndrome, the source indicates emergency care includes rapid oxygen therapy and which positioning?
Why: The source states nurses promptly request emergency assistance for fat embolism, which includes rapid administration of oxygen therapy, high Fowler's positioning, and potential intubation and mechanical ventilation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 10.6 Fracture