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|---|---|
| Official exam | DHA Registered Nurse CBT (code RNT0312), Dubai Health Authority |
| Questions | 150 MCQs |
| Time | 3 hours (DHA notes the duration includes registration and introduction time) |
| Passing score | 50% |
| Exam fee | USD 240 (as stated by DHA; collected by Prometric) |
| Pre-licensing or eligibility | Unified PQR (DHA, DOH, MOHAP, SHA, 3rd version 2025): Bachelor's degree in nursing (minimum three years full-time); no experience required for Registered Nurse, subject to gap-of-practice criteria; valid BLS; Good Standing Certificate not older than six months; primary source verification of documents. UAE nationals and Children of Emirati Women are exempt from the Authority exam |
| Book your exam | proscheduler.prometric.com/?prg=dha&path=schd |
Checked 11 October 2026 from the official sources below. Rules and fees change, so confirm with Prometric before you book.
Lantern is a $29 bank of original questions for the Gulf nursing licensing exams. Here is how it compares with the question banks nurses usually consider, including where they are the better choice. See the comparison with Prometric Gulf, Medical Exam Books, eNursing Portal and others.
The exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours (DHA CBT guideline for Registered Nurse, code RNT0312), four-option single best answer. Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.
DHA's published pass mark for the Registered Nurse CBT is 50%. We score your practice against a stricter 60% benchmark as a conservative readiness guide. Confirm the current figures in Sheryan before your exam.
No — and that matters. Selling ‘recalled’ or ‘actual’ exam questions violates the confidentiality agreement every candidate signs and can put your licence application at risk. Every Lantern Prep question is original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and grounded in open, authoritative nursing references, with the source cited in every rationale.
The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.
The core nursing content is shared across SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, and QCHP — the exams test the same registered-nurse fundamentals. Each regulator page packages the bank to that exam’s length and timing.
$29, one time, lifetime access. No subscription, no account needed.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. Lantern Prep is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by any regulator or testing provider.
It is organised into 4 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing and Nursing Management and Leadership. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 6 July 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
According to the source, which statement about the timing of nursing documentation is correct?
Why: The source states documentation must be completed accurately and timely after the task is performed and that nurses should not document in advance of completing a task. Charting care as complete when it was not done is identified as falsification, so omitting or pre-charting is incorrect.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 2.5 Documentation
According to the source, what is the most common cause of pathological jaundice in the newborn?
Why: The source states the most common cause of pathological jaundice is blood group incompatibility (ABO or Rh factor), also called hemolytic disease of the newborn. Pathological jaundice rises earlier and faster than physiological jaundice.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is described by the source as resulting from which cause?
Why: The source states TACO occurs when the volume of the transfusing blood component causes volume overload (hypervolemia) from an overly rapid administration rate or amount, presenting with crackles, dyspnea, and jugular vein distension.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 3.2 Basic Concepts
A patient with schizophrenia shows flat affect, reduced motivation (avolition), and social withdrawal. According to the source, these findings represent which category of symptoms?
Why: The source describes negative symptoms as the absence or decrease of normal behaviors and emotional responses, including loss of motivation (avolition), anhedonia, flat affect, social withdrawal, and reduced speaking.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.3 Schizophrenia
According to the source, septic shock involves a life-threatening decrease in blood pressure defined by a systolic pressure less than:
Why: The source states severe sepsis can lead to septic shock, a life-threatening decrease in blood pressure (systolic pressure less than 90 mm Hg) that prevents cells and organs from receiving enough oxygen and nutrients, causing multi-organ failure and death.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 9.4 Infection
A nurse is caring for a patient who is showing signs of escalating behavior. According to the source's safety strategies, where should the nurse position themselves in the room?
Why: The source advises that when in a room with a patient showing warning signs of escalation, the nurse should position themselves between the door and the patient so they can exit quickly if needed. The patient should never be between the nurse and the exit.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 1.6 Establishing Safety
A nurse educator defines negligence for students. According to the source, negligence is best described as which of the following?
Why: The source defines negligence as the failure to act as a reasonably prudent person would, and malpractice as professional negligence. Intentional harmful contact is battery, and confining a person is false imprisonment.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Legal Implications
According to the source, telehealth is best described as which of the following?
Why: The source defines telehealth as the use of digital technologies to deliver medical care, health education, and public health services by connecting multiple users in separate locations, improving access in underserved areas by removing barriers of time, distance, and provider scarcity.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations
According to the source, a comprehensive health history is completed by which team member and carries what delegation status?
Why: The source states a comprehensive health history is completed by a registered nurse and may not be delegated. It is typically done on admission to a health care agency or during the initial visit to a provider.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 2.3 Components of a Health History
According to the source, what remains the gold standard for definitive diagnosis of endometriosis?
Why: The source states that while pelvic ultrasound and MRI may visualize pelvic anatomy, laparoscopic surgery with direct visualization and biopsy of endometrial implants remains the gold standard for definitive diagnosis of endometriosis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.10 Endometriosis
A patient receiving a transfusion suddenly develops flank pain, chills, fever, and hypotension within 15 minutes of the start. According to the source, what is the first nursing action?
Why: The source states that for an acute hemolytic reaction, the nurse should stop the transfusion, remove the blood tubing, and maintain access with 0.9% normal saline, then notify the provider and monitor vitals every 15 minutes.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 3.2 Basic Concepts
A patient on an antipsychotic develops an acute dystonic reaction affecting the larynx. According to the source, why is this a medical emergency?
Why: The source states acute dystonic reactions affecting the larynx can be a medical emergency requiring intubation and mechanical ventilation. EPS symptoms usually resolve within 10 to 30 minutes of parenteral anticholinergics such as diphenhydramine and benztropine.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.3 Schizophrenia
A nurse recalls the 'A PINCH' mnemonic for high-alert medications. Which class does the letter 'I' represent in this mnemonic?
Why: The source's A PINCH table lists I for Insulin (all insulins). Anti-infectives are the 'A', chemotherapeutic agents are the 'C', and the other options do not match the mnemonic letters. High-alert medications carry a heightened risk of significant harm when used in error.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 2.5 Preventing Medication Errors
According to the source, which hemoglobin A1C level is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?
Why: The source states an HbA1C of 6.5% or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Less than 5.7% is normal, and 5.7% to 6.4% indicates prediabetes. HbA1C reflects average glucose over the preceding two to three months.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 7.5 Diabetes Mellitus
A patient is progressing from NPO status after surgery and is ordered a clear liquid diet. Which item is appropriate for this diet per the source?
Why: The source lists clear liquids as fluids that are see-through and without residue, giving examples of water, apple juice, clear soda, Jello, popsicles, and broth. Creamed soups and pudding are full liquids; ground meat and applesauce belong to mechanical soft or pureed diets.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 14.3 Applying the Nursing Process
As hepatitis progresses, which cluster of signs does the source describe?
Why: The source states that as the disorder progresses, jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, an enlarged liver, light-colored stools, and dark-colored urine may occur. Early signs are loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and fatigue.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.15 Hepatitis
A newborn has a smooth philtrum, a thin upper lip, and small palpebral fissures. According to the source, these three facial abnormalities are characteristic of which condition?
Why: The source lists three specific facial abnormalities of fetal alcohol syndrome: a smooth philtrum, a thin upper lip, and small palpebral fissures, along with a growth deficit and central nervous system abnormalities.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.8 Exposure to Maternal Substance Use
After surgical repair of coarctation of the aorta, an infant continues to have hypertension. According to the source, which calcium channel blocker is used safely to control blood pressure postoperatively in this situation?
Why: The source states nicardipine is used safely and effectively in infants to reduce blood pressure postoperatively after certain surgeries where strict blood pressure control is essential, such as repair of coarctation of the aorta. Up to 30% of infants continue to have hypertension after repair.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.5 Applying the Nursing Process to Congenital Heart Defects
When beginning a blood transfusion, the source directs the RN to remain with and monitor the patient for at least how long as the transfusion begins at a slow rate?
Why: The source states the RN remains with and monitors the patient for a transfusion reaction for at least 15 minutes as the transfusion begins at a slow rate of 2 mL/min (120 mL/hour), because most transfusion reactions occur within the first 15 minutes.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 3.5 Anemia
A nurse suspects, but is not certain, that an older adult patient is being abused by a caregiver. According to the source's principle of mandatory reporting, what should the nurse do?
Why: The source states mandated reporters who suspect neglect or abuse should contact the appropriate agency immediately and describe the situation, reporting what they know. Reporting is based on suspicion, not proof; the receiving department determines whether it meets criteria for investigation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 15.4 Abuse and Neglect
A patient states, 'The doctor is here. He wants to kill me.' According to the source, what is the BEST therapeutic nursing approach?
Why: The source advises avoiding questioning the delusion, as trying to prove it incorrect can intensify it and reduce trust. Instead, focus on the fear and what would help the patient feel safer, such as offering to stay with them, and focus on events in the present.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.4 Applying the Nursing Process to Schizophrenia
After stopping a transfusion for a suspected acute hemolytic reaction, which IV fluid does the source direct the nurse to maintain access with?
Why: The source states that for an acute hemolytic reaction the nurse should stop the transfusion, remove the blood tubing, and maintain access with 0.9% normal saline, then obtain blood and urine samples for the lab.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 3.2 Basic Concepts
A patient develops acute renal failure after receiving an aminoglycoside antibiotic and IV contrast media. According to the source, these nephrotoxins cause which type of injury?
Why: The source states intrarenal injury is caused by conditions that directly damage renal tissue, including nephrotoxins such as aminoglycoside antibiotics and contrast media. Prerenal reduces blood flow, and postrenal involves obstruction of urinary outflow.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure
A patient with schizophrenia is highly suspicious and paranoid. According to the source, which nursing action is helpful?
Why: The source states that if a patient is exhibiting paranoia, it is helpful to maintain consistent staff assignments, avoid laughing or whispering where the patient can see but not hear, and ask permission before touching the patient.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.4 Applying the Nursing Process to Schizophrenia
A nurse teaches a caregiver how to prevent diaper dermatitis. According to the source, which measure is recommended?
Why: The source states diaper dermatitis is managed by limiting moisture, changing diapers frequently, cleaning with water and a gentle cleanser, and applying barrier creams with each diaper change. Scent-free wipes should be used.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.8 Dermatitis
A nurse recognizes a task is beyond their own scope and asks a specialist for assistance. Which IPEC core competency does this best reflect?
Why: The source describes the Roles/Responsibilities competency as using knowledge of one's own and others' roles to assess and address patient needs, recognizing one's own limitations, and asking for assistance.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Collaboration Within the Interprofessional Team
The source states that approximately what proportion of neonates experience impaired transition requiring some intervention?
Why: The source states nearly 10% of neonates experience impaired transition requiring some intervention, with less than 1% requiring extensive resuscitation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.2 Physical Changes After Birth
During the intraoperative period, how often does the source state vital sign assessments are typically documented to detect deviations from baseline?
Why: The source states these assessments are typically documented every five minutes to detect any deviations from the baseline, including monitoring of ETCO2 to prevent hypoventilation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.4 Intraoperative Nursing Care
A patient reports sudden sharp calf pain with unilateral warmth, redness, and swelling that increases with dorsiflexion of the foot. According to the source, these findings indicate:
Why: The source states unilateral warmth, redness, tenderness, swelling in the calf, or sudden intense sharp muscle pain increasing with dorsiflexion indicates a DVT. A DVT requires emergency notification of the provider and immediate follow-up because of the risk of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 9.3 Cardiovascular Assessment
The nurse monitors a patient on a magnesium sulfate infusion. According to the source, what is the FIRST manifestation of magnesium toxicity to watch for?
Why: The source states loss of deep tendon reflexes is the first manifestation of symptomatic hypermagnesemia; patellar reflexes are tested before each dose, and if absent, additional doses are held. Respiratory paralysis and cardiac arrest are later, more severe signs; flushing is an expected side effect.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.5 Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy
A nurse is teaching a new graduate about the ABCs framework for prioritization. What do the letters A, B, and C represent?
Why: The source defines the ABCs as Airway, Breathing, Circulation, used to preserve life first; if the airway is not patent, the patient cannot breathe, or circulation is inadequate, little else matters.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Prioritization
An infant with a congenital heart defect has poor feeding, excessive sweating during feeding, and fine crackles on auscultation. According to the source, these findings are most consistent with which complication?
Why: The source states left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the lungs (pulmonary congestion, fine crackles, dyspnea) plus low cardiac output signs such as poor feeding and growth, excessive sweating during feeding, and decreased peripheral pulses.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.4 Complications of Congenital Heart Defects
Using the CURE hierarchy, a nurse has two competing needs. Which should be addressed first?
Why: The source gives this exact example: a critical need (rapid fluttering heartbeat plus shortness of breath) takes priority over an urgent need (assisting a weak patient on a bed alarm to the restroom). Critical needs require immediate action and never fall below urgent, routine, or extra activities.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Prioritization
According to the source, supine (back) sleep decreases the risk of SIDS but increases the risk of which condition?
Why: The source states supine sleep decreases SIDS but increases positional plagiocephaly (flat spots on the head from repeated pressure). Prevention includes tummy time and alternating crib direction.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period
Which of the following is listed by the source as a condition that can trigger the sickling of red blood cells?
Why: The source lists triggers of sickling as dehydration, low oxygen levels, infection or inflammation, pregnancy, acidosis, temperature changes, stress, and high altitudes. Nurses teach patients how to avoid these triggers.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 3.8 Sickle Cell Disease
According to the source, hospitalization is indicated during the acute phase of schizophrenia when the patient meets which criterion?
Why: The source states hospitalization is indicated during the acute phase if the patient is considered a danger to self (for example refuses to eat or is too disorganized to function) or to others (for example behaving in a threatening manner).
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.4 Applying the Nursing Process to Schizophrenia
According to the source, moderate (normal) FHR variability is defined as fluctuations of what magnitude?
Why: The source states moderate (normal) variability is fluctuations of 6 to 25 bpm above or below baseline. Minimal variability is 5 bpm or less, marked is greater than 25 bpm, and absent is flat or near-flat.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.5 Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring
A nurse presses over a patient's tibia and an indentation remains that takes over 20 seconds to rebound. According to the source's 1 to 4 scale, how is this graded?
Why: The source states pitting edema is graded on a scale from 1 to 4, where 1+ indicates a barely detectable depression with immediate rebound and 4+ indicates a deep depression with a time lapse of over 20 seconds required to rebound. The nurse presses over a bony structure such as the tibia to assess.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 14.4 Integumentary Assessment
According to Piaget's theory as described in the source, school-aged children are in which stage of cognitive development?
Why: The source states that according to Piaget's theory, school-aged children are in the concrete operational stage, thinking logically and systematically when dealing with concrete information.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 13.3 Stages of Child Development
A child is diagnosed with mild croup. According to the source, which medication may be prescribed to reduce swelling?
Why: The source states patients with mild croup may be prescribed dexamethasone to reduce swelling. Moderate to severe croup may add epinephrine via nebulizer.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.8 Croup
According to the source, anaphylaxis is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Why: The source states anaphylaxis is a Type I hypersensitivity reaction that occurs rapidly and systemically, and if not promptly treated, it can be fatal. It involves release of inflammatory mediators in response to an allergen.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.5 Autoimmune and Hypersensitivity Reactions
According to the source, a head ultrasound to screen for intraventricular hemorrhage is typically performed for all preterm infants born before how many weeks of gestation?
Why: The source states no signs of IVH may be present, so a head ultrasound is typically performed for all preterm infants born before 30 weeks of gestation, with an initial ultrasound in the first two weeks of life.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.2 Preterm Birth
According to the source, diabetes mellitus is diagnosed when fasting blood glucose levels consistently measure which value or higher on two separate tests?
Why: The source states diabetes is diagnosed when fasting blood glucose consistently measures 126 mg/dL or higher on two separate tests. Impaired fasting glucose is 100-125 mg/dL, and normal fasting glucose is 70-100 mg/dL.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 7.5 Diabetes Mellitus
According to the source, long-term oxygen therapy is prescribed for a patient with COPD when oxygen saturation levels are at which value when at rest and in a stable condition?
Why: The source states long-term oxygen therapy is prescribed for patients with COPD when oxygen saturation levels are 88% or less when at rest and in a stable clinical condition. The other thresholds are not the value stated.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.6 COPD
According to the source, acute renal failure (acute kidney injury) is best described as which of the following?
Why: The source defines acute renal failure as the sudden loss of kidney function, occurring over hours to days, that can be reversible if detected early and treated promptly. Gradual, progressive loss over years describes chronic kidney disease.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure
According to the source, further evaluation for a child with diarrhea is recommended for infants younger than 3 months or those who weigh less than what amount?
Why: The source states further evaluation is recommended for children younger than three months or who weigh less than 8 kg, have a fever, blood in stool, signs of dehydration, or who cannot take fluids by mouth.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.9 Diarrhea
A provider orders 'Benadryl 50 mg PO stat' for a patient having an allergic reaction. According to the source, what does a STAT order require?
Why: The source defines a STAT order as a one-time order that is administered without delay due to the urgency of the circumstances, giving the exact example of 'Benadryl 50 mg PO stat' for an allergic reaction. A PRN order, by contrast, is given as needed by the patient.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 15.2 Basic Concepts of Administering Medications
A nurse is administering an over-the-counter psyllium fiber supplement to prevent constipation. According to the source, what is essential when giving this medication?
Why: The source states that when administering bulk-forming fiber medications such as methylcellulose or psyllium, the nurse should mix them in a full 8-ounce glass of water to avoid the development of an intestinal obstruction. Increased fluids, dietary fiber, and activity are recommended to prevent constipation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 16.6 Constipation
According to the source, a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder requires that the individual has had at least which of the following?
Why: The source states that individuals with Bipolar I disorder have had at least one manic episode and often experience additional hypomanic and depressive episodes. One manic episode can change a diagnosis from depression to bipolar disorder.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 8.2 Basic Concepts of Bipolar Disorders
A child is suspected of having epiglottitis. According to the source, which action must the nurse NOT perform?
Why: The source states that on physical exam the nurse must NOT place anything (such as a tongue blade) into the throat, as this could trigger complete airway obstruction and respiratory arrest.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.9 Epiglottitis
According to the source, otitis media is most commonly seen in patients of what age?
Why: The source states otitis media can occur at any age but is most commonly seen in patients 6 to 24 months of age, with males being affected more frequently.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.17 Otitis Media
The source states that after birth the ductus arteriosus constricts and functionally closes within which time frame?
Why: The source states the ductus arteriosus constricts and closes within 12 to 24 hours after birth, with permanent closure occurring within two to three weeks. The ductus venosus closes over the first few days with permanent closure in one to three months.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.2 Physical Changes After Birth
According to the source, what is the compression-to-ventilation ratio used during neonatal chest compressions?
Why: The source states the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 3:1, which equals 90 compressions and 30 breaths per minute, using the two-thumb technique with fingers encircling the chest.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.9 Neonatal Resuscitation
According to the source, what is the most common indication for placement of a nasogastric tube?
Why: The source states the most common indication for NG tube placement is to decompress the stomach of a patient with a distal bowel obstruction or ileus, keeping the stomach empty until normal peristalsis returns.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 5.2 Basic Concepts
A nurse prepares a patient with impaired mobility for a meal. Which positioning intervention does the source recommend to promote safe eating?
Why: The source directs the nurse to assist the patient to a sitting position before eating or feeding, and to sit in a chair or high Fowler's position in bed. A supine or flat position during eating increases aspiration risk and is not recommended.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 14.3 Applying the Nursing Process
According to the source, Hildegard Peplau developed a model describing which four levels of anxiety?
Why: The source states that Hildegard Peplau developed a model describing four levels of anxiety: mild, moderate, severe, and panic. Interventions can be tailored based on the level of anxiety the patient is experiencing.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 9.2 Basic Concepts
A patient requests combined oral contraceptives. Based on the source, which patient history is a condition for which combination pills should be avoided?
Why: The source states the estrogen in combination pills can cause blood clots and increase the risk for myocardial infarction or stroke, and that people who smoke should avoid combination pills. Other listed contraindications include a history of blood clots, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.7 Contraception
According to the source, communication failures between settings, departments, or team members are what?
Why: The source states that communication failures between settings, departments, or team members are the LEADING cause of patient harm, and that care coordination across settings is a core nursing role.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Collaboration Within the Interprofessional Team
According to the source, anemia may develop in acute renal failure as a result of which mechanism?
Why: The source states a complete blood count may reflect anemia as the result of decreased erythropoietin production during acute renal failure. The kidneys normally produce erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell production.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure
The source distinguishes two wound complications. Which statement correctly describes evisceration according to the source?
Why: The source defines evisceration as protrusion of internal organs through a dehisced surgical incision site, while dehiscence is the separation of surgical wound edges exposing underlying tissues.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care
In the New York Heart Association Functional Classification described in the source, which class has symptoms of heart failure at rest, with any physical activity causing further discomfort?
Why: The source defines NYHA Class IV as symptoms at rest with any activity causing further discomfort, also called end-stage heart failure qualifying for hospice care. Class I has no limitation, II slight, III marked limitation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.8 Heart Failure
A patient with an NG feeding tube develops respiratory symptoms suggesting possible aspiration. According to the source, what is the appropriate action?
Why: The source states that if the patient develops respiratory symptoms indicating potential aspiration, the nurse should immediately notify the provider and withhold enteral feedings and medications until placement is verified.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 5.2 Basic Concepts
A nurse follows the agency's precise, detailed written plan for treating hypoglycemia, which includes providing orange juice and rechecking the blood sugar. According to the source, this type of written plan is called a:
Why: The source defines a protocol as 'a precise and detailed written plan for a regimen of therapy,' giving the example of a hypoglycemia protocol that nurses automatically implement when a patient's blood sugar falls below a specific number.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 1.3 Regulations & Standards
According to the source, tumor lysis syndrome occurs when tumor cells break down in response to treatment. Which electrolyte pattern does it describe?
Why: The source states tumor lysis syndrome causes increased serum levels of uric acid, phosphorus, and potassium and decreased levels of calcium, along with signs of kidney failure. Treatment includes aggressive hydration and rasburicase to decrease uric acid.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.3 Cancer
A nurse performs preoperative skin preparation to reduce a patient's risk of surgical wound infection. What does this generally entail?
Why: The source states proper skin preparation generally entails cleansing the entire body with antiseptic wipes (such as chlorhexidine wipes) prior to surgery, reducing microorganisms on the skin. Some providers require an antiseptic soap shower.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.3 Preoperative Nursing Care
A postoperative patient is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. According to the source, which parameter is the primary priority for the nurse to monitor?
Why: The source identifies respiratory depression as the primary risk of morphine and directs the nurse to monitor respiratory status, as patients can become overly sedated and suffer respiratory depression or arrest. Bowel function is monitored but is not the primary life-threatening concern here.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 10.7 Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists
According to the source, an expected outcome for a patient with acute renal failure is a gradual increase in urinary output maintaining a minimum of which amount, indicating improved renal perfusion?
Why: The source lists an expected outcome of a gradual increase in urinary output to within normal limits, maintaining a minimum of 30 mL/hour, indicating improved renal perfusion and function within 24 hours. The other values are not the minimum stated.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure
The Kubler-Ross model identifies five stages of grief remembered by the mnemonic DABDA. What are these five stages?
Why: The source states Elizabeth Kubler-Ross identified five stages of grief - denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance - remembered by the mnemonic DABDA. Patients may experience these along a continuum, move randomly between stages, or skip stages altogether; there is no one correct way to grieve.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 17.2 Grief and Loss Basic Concepts
During the evaluation step of the nursing process, how does the nurse categorize the patient's progress toward expected outcomes?
Why: The source states that during evaluation the nurse uses critical thinking to determine if a patient's expected outcomes have been met, partially met, or not met by the time frames established. If outcomes are not met or only partially met, the care plan should be revised.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 4.8 Evaluation
A patient with terminal cancer says, 'I promised God I would stop smoking if He would heal me.' According to the source, this statement reflects which stage of grief?
Why: The source describes bargaining as an attempt to regain control of the loss by looking to change or negotiate the outcome by making a deal, often with God or a higher power. The example given is a patient promising to change behavior if circumstances were different, matching this statement.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 17.2 Grief and Loss Basic Concepts
According to the source, acyanotic congenital heart defects generally cause blood to be shunted in which direction?
Why: The source states acyanotic defects involve an abnormal opening causing blood to be shunted from the left side of the heart back to the right side; because this blood is already oxygenated, it does not cause hypoxia or cyanosis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.3 Categories of Congenital Heart Defects - Acyanotic and Cyanotic Defects
According to the source, after successful resuscitation the newborn's temperature should be maintained in which normothermic range?
Why: The source states post-resuscitation care includes maintaining normothermia at 36.5-37.5 degrees C and closely monitoring heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.9 Neonatal Resuscitation
According to the source, which leadership style has the highest positive correlation with nurses' job satisfaction?
Why: The source states the transformational style — motivating followers to exceed expectations through a shared vision, charisma, communication, and valued relationships — has the highest positive correlation with nurses' job satisfaction. Passive-avoidant and laissez-faire styles negatively correlate.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Leadership and Management
A safety officer applies systems theory to error prevention. Which statement reflects systems theory as described in the source?
Why: The source describes systems theory as recognizing that system parts are interdependent, that most people try to do good work but are affected by system influences, and that outcomes improve by studying patterns across the system.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Leadership and Management
A child presents with bruises in the shape of a belt, burns in the shape of a cigarette, and fractures that do not fit the reported story. According to the source, these findings most strongly suggest which of the following?
Why: The source lists signs of physical abuse including injuries in the shape of an object such as a belt or cord, unexplained burns in the shape of an object such as a cigarette, and fractures that do not fit the story of how an injury occurred.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 15.4 Abuse and Neglect
According to the source, second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics differ from first-generation antipsychotics in that they treat which symptoms?
Why: The source states that first-generation (typical) antipsychotics treat positive symptoms, while second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics treat both positive and negative symptoms and have fewer adverse effects because they block selective dopamine D2 receptors as well as serotonin.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.3 Schizophrenia
The source states the uterine fundus can first be palpated at which gestational age?
Why: The source states that if the patient is at 12 or more weeks of gestation, the fundus can be palpated. The earlier weeks do not match the value given in the text.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.8 First Trimester Prenatal Care
According to the source, why does the developing fetus experience higher concentrations of alcohol than the pregnant woman?
Why: The source states the developing fetus experiences higher concentrations of alcohol than the pregnant woman because the fetus metabolizes alcohol more slowly than an adult, and the more alcohol ingested, the greater the risk.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.8 Exposure to Maternal Substance Use
A nurse is caring for a patient with an indwelling (Foley) urinary catheter. Where should the nurse keep the urine collection bag to reduce the patient's risk of infection?
Why: The source states a urine collection bag should always be kept below the level of the bladder to promote drainage and prevent backflow of urine, which increases the risk of infection. Positioning it at or above the bladder allows urine to flow back toward the bladder.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 21.2 Basic Concepts (urinary elimination devices)
According to the source, patients on extended bed rest lose muscle strength at an estimated rate of:
Why: The source states patients who spend an extended period in bed can develop complications due to loss of muscle strength, estimated at a rate of 20% per week of immobility. Promoting mobility can prevent complications across cardiovascular, respiratory, GI, and musculoskeletal systems.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 13.2 Mobility Basic Concepts