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| Delivered by | Prometric (SCFHS-approved Prometric test centres) |
|---|---|
| Official exam | Saudi Nursing Licensure Examination (SNLE), Saudi Commission for Health Specialties |
| Questions | 200 MCQs (four options, one best answer), including up to 10% pilot (unscored) items |
| Time | Two parts of 100 questions, 120 minutes each, with a scheduled 30-minute break |
| Passing score | Scaled score of 500 on a 200–800 reporting scale |
| Pre-licensing or eligibility | Recognised primary degree (BSN or equivalent) from an accredited programme; interns, or candidates within one year of graduation / Saudi students in their final undergraduate year, may also sit |
| Book your exam | proscheduler.prometric.com/?prg=schs&path=schd |
Checked 11 October 2026 from the official sources below. Rules and fees change, so confirm with Prometric (SCFHS-approved Prometric test centres) before you book.
Lantern is a $29 bank of original questions for the Gulf nursing licensing exams. Here is how it compares with the question banks nurses usually consider, including where they are the better choice. See the comparison with Prometric Gulf, Medical Exam Books, eNursing Portal and others.
The exam is 200 MCQs (up to 10% unscored pilot items), two 120-minute blocks with a 30-minute break, four-option single best answer. Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.
Pass is a scaled score of 500 on a 200–800 scale, set by SCFHS — not a fixed percentage. We score your practice against a 65% benchmark as a conservative readiness guide.
No — and that matters. Selling ‘recalled’ or ‘actual’ exam questions violates the confidentiality agreement every candidate signs and can put your licence application at risk. Every Lantern Prep question is original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and grounded in open, authoritative nursing references, with the source cited in every rationale.
The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.
The core nursing content is shared across SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, and QCHP — the exams test the same registered-nurse fundamentals. Each regulator page packages the bank to that exam’s length and timing.
$29, one time, lifetime access. No subscription, no account needed.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. Lantern Prep is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by any regulator or testing provider.
It is organised into 4 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing and Nursing Management and Leadership. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 6 July 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
A nurse receives a written order containing an ISMP error-prone abbreviation such as 'qd'. According to the source, what is the appropriate action?
Why: The source states that if a nurse receives a prescription containing an error-prone abbreviation, it should be clarified with the provider and the order rewritten without the abbreviation. These abbreviations are frequently misinterpreted and should never be used, so administering or transcribing them as written is unsafe.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 2.5 Preventing Medication Errors
According to the source, which medication is kept readily available as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
Why: The source states that intravenous calcium gluconate and calcium chloride, the antidotes for magnesium toxicity, are kept readily available during a magnesium sulfate infusion. Naloxone is the antidote for opioids.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.5 Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy
According to the source, how is a psychotic episode typically treated, especially if the person is at risk of harming themselves or others?
Why: The source states a psychotic episode is typically treated as a medical emergency, especially if the person is at risk of harming themselves or others. The immediate goal is to stabilize the individual and reduce acute symptoms, usually beginning with antipsychotic medication.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.2 Psychosis and Delirium
According to the source, persistent depressive disorder (formerly dysthymia) requires depressive symptoms be present most of the day, more days than not, in adults for at least what duration?
Why: The source states that persistent depressive disorder is a chronic form of depression that is typically less severe than major depressive disorder but lasts longer; in adults symptoms must be present most of the day, more days than not, for at least two years.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 7.3 Types of Depression
During a shoulder dystocia, the nurse is directed to apply pressure. According to the source, which pressure is applied to dislodge the fetal shoulder?
Why: The source states that after the McRoberts maneuver, posterolateral suprapubic pressure is applied to attempt to dislodge the fetal shoulder from underneath the pubic bone, with the nurse positioned above the patient to apply downward lateral pressure toward the fetal-facing side.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.8 Complications During the Second Stage of Labor
A postoperative patient has decreased blood pressure from baseline, a heart rate over 100, and cold, clammy skin. The source associates these findings with which complication?
Why: The source states hemorrhage presents with decreased blood pressure from baseline with tachycardia (heart rate over 100 beats per minute) and cold, clammy skin. Interventions include replacing blood volume and reinforcing the dressing.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care
According to the source, telehealth is best described as which of the following?
Why: The source defines telehealth as the use of digital technologies to deliver medical care, health education, and public health services by connecting multiple users in separate locations, improving access in underserved areas by removing barriers of time, distance, and provider scarcity.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations
According to the source, a first-time pregnancy at age 35 or older carries a higher risk of which complication?
Why: The source states first-time pregnancy at age 35 or older raises the risk of complications including ectopic pregnancy, pregnancy-related high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, pregnancy loss, delivery complications, cesarean delivery, and fetal genetic disorders such as Down syndrome.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.2 High-Risk Pregnancy
According to the source, administering a prescribed diuretic to a patient is an example of which type of nursing intervention?
Why: The source states dependent nursing interventions require a prescription before they can be performed, and gives administering medication (such as scheduled diuretics as prescribed) as an example. Prescriptions are ordered by an authorized primary health care provider.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 4.6 Planning
According to the source, elder abuse is defined as an intentional act or failure to act that causes or creates a risk of harm to an older adult, defined as someone of what age?
Why: The source defines elder abuse as an intentional act or failure to act that causes or creates a risk of harm to an older adult, and defines an older adult as someone age 60 or older.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 15.4 Abuse and Neglect
According to the source, ageism is best defined as:
Why: The source defines ageism as the stereotyping and discrimination against individuals or groups on the basis of their age. Gerontology is the study of aging, and the other options describe physiologic aging and social withdrawal rather than ageism.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 19.2 Care of the Older Adult - Basic Concepts
On an ECG waveform as described in the source, the P wave represents which electrical event?
Why: The source states the P wave represents depolarization of the atria, the QRS complex depolarization of the ventricles, and the T wave repolarization of the ventricle.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 7.2 ECG Basic Concepts
A nurse is caring for a patient scheduled to receive spinal anesthesia. This type of anesthesia is used for which type of surgical procedures?
Why: The source states that spinal anesthesia is used for lower abdominal and lower extremity surgeries, injecting anesthetic into the cerebrospinal fluid in the subarachnoid space. Epidural anesthesia is often used for childbirth.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery
A patient with PUD develops a sudden change in abdominal pain along with changes in vital signs. According to the source, these findings should alert the nurse to which potential complication?
Why: The source states sudden changes in pain can occur with ulcer perforation, and changes in vital signs could indicate a potential complication such as perforation or hemorrhage. The nurse also assesses emesis and stool for blood.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.10 Peptic Ulcer Disease
According to the source, vascular access for hemodialysis is typically established through which of the following?
Why: The source states hemodialysis vascular access is typically established through a surgically created arteriovenous fistula, arteriovenous graft, or central venous catheter, and these access sites are only used for dialysis. A peritoneal catheter is used for peritoneal dialysis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure
According to the source, orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in blood pressure occurring within three minutes of sitting or standing of at least:
Why: The source defines orthostatic hypotension as a drop in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg or more, or a drop in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg or more, within three minutes of sitting or standing. The other figures are not the defined thresholds.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 13.2 Mobility Basic Concepts
According to the source's blood products table, is ABO/Rh testing required for platelets?
Why: The source's blood products table indicates ABO/Rh testing is not required (No) for platelets. Platelets increase the platelet count to promote hemostasis and the bag should be agitated periodically.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 3.2 Basic Concepts
According to the source, an ethical dilemma is best defined as which of the following?
Why: The source defines an ethical dilemma as a conflict of competing values requiring a decision between equally desirable or undesirable options, which may involve patient, nurse, provider, organizational, and societal values.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Ethical Practice
How does the source define epilepsy in terms of the number and timing of unprovoked seizures?
Why: The source defines epilepsy as a chronic disorder defined by at least two unprovoked seizures occurring at least 24 hours apart, in which groups of neurons sometimes send wrong signals causing recurrent, unpredictable seizures.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.7 Seizures and Epilepsy
Before giving digoxin to an infant, a nurse auscultates the apical pulse for one full minute. According to the source, the dose should be withheld and the provider notified if the apical heart rate is below what value?
Why: The source states that prior to digoxin administration the nurse auscultates the apical pulse for one minute, and the dose is withheld and the provider notified for an apical heart rate less than 100 beats per minute in infants.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.5 Applying the Nursing Process to Congenital Heart Defects
A patient receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preterm labor is being monitored for hypermagnesemia. Which assessment finding is the FIRST manifestation of symptomatic magnesium toxicity described in the source?
Why: The source states that loss of the patellar deep tendon reflex is the first manifestation of symptomatic hypermagnesemia. Deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate, and urine output must all be closely monitored during magnesium sulfate therapy.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.10 Preterm Labor
After delivery of an LGA infant, according to the source, which routine test is performed to monitor for a common complication?
Why: The source states that after delivery an LGA infant is examined for birth injuries and routine blood glucose testing is performed to monitor for hypoglycemia. Respiratory status and bilirubin levels are also closely monitored.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.4 Birth Weight
According to the source, macrosomia is diagnosed when a newborn weighs more than which value, regardless of gestational age?
Why: The source states a newborn who weighs more than 8 pounds, 13 ounces (4,000 grams), regardless of gestational age, is diagnosed with macrosomia. LGA infants are in the 90th percentile or higher for weight.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.3 Post-term Birth
After an intrauterine fetal demise, the nurse plans bereavement care. According to the source, which action is appropriate to facilitate grieving?
Why: The source states nurses may encourage patients, based on their preferences, to see and hold the baby, take pictures and footprints, name the baby, and pursue spiritual or religious rituals to facilitate grieving. Emotional support and memory-making are central to bereavement care.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.14 Pregnancy Loss and Fetal Demise
According to the source, which virus is the leading cause of diarrhea?
Why: The source states diarrhea often has a viral cause with norovirus being the leading culprit, though rotavirus and other pathogens are also common in daycare centers.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.9 Diarrhea
A nurse must decide which patient to assess first. Using the ABCs framework, which patient should the nurse prioritize?
Why: The source explains the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) preserve life first, and are used to prioritize among patients with physiological needs: a breathing/circulation problem such as palpitations plus shortness of breath outranks an urgent elimination need.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Prioritization
Immediately after a patient's tonic-clonic seizure ends, which nursing action does the source identify to prevent aspiration?
Why: The source states that after a seizure, the nurse should keep the patient on their side to prevent aspiration and ensure the airway is open and patent. There is often a period of confusion after a tonic-clonic seizure, so a safe environment is maintained.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.7 Seizures and Epilepsy
Which diagnostic test does the source identify as the gold standard for diagnosing peptic ulcer disease because it allows direct visualization of ulcers?
Why: The source identifies the EGD as the gold standard because it allows visualization of ulcers, and biopsies can be taken during an EGD to assess for H. pylori. A barium swallow is an alternative if the patient cannot undergo an EGD.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.10 Peptic Ulcer Disease
According to the source's communication tips for patients with schizophrenia, which technique is recommended?
Why: The source recommends using short, simple, clear sentences and speaking calmly and slowly, because patients with schizophrenia may have difficulty processing complex information. A calm tone reduces anxiety and helps de-escalate agitation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.4 Applying the Nursing Process to Schizophrenia
According to the source, what should caregivers be taught to do before feeding an infant with bronchiolitis to improve their ability to eat?
Why: The source states caregivers should perform nasal suctioning prior to feeding infants because this can improve their ability to eat, and to encourage small, frequent, high-caloric meals.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.10 Bronchiolitis
According to the source, chronic kidney disease is best described as which of the following?
Why: The source defines chronic kidney disease as the gradual, progressive loss of kidney function over time, typically over months or years, and asymptomatic in early stages. Sudden loss over hours to days describes acute renal failure.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.6 Chronic Kidney Disease
A patient on a medical unit expresses suicidal ideation. According to the source, which nursing intervention is described as a priority nursing intervention to prevent suicide?
Why: The source explicitly states that establishing a safe care environment is a priority nursing intervention for preventing suicide. This includes environmental risk assessment and removing objects that could be used for self-harm.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 1.6 Establishing Safety
According to the source, why must a newborn CBC collected within 72 hours of birth be interpreted with caution for sepsis?
Why: The source states newborn CBCs collected within 72 hours of birth reflect more about the mother's immune status rather than serving as a biomarker for neonatal sepsis. Diagnosis is based on positive culture results.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.5 Neonatal Sepsis
A nurse teaches a preoperative patient about clear liquids before surgery. For how long should clear liquids be avoided before the procedure?
Why: The source states patients are typically advised to avoid food for at least 6 to 8 hours and clear liquids for 2 hours before the procedure. Failure to comply can result in surgery cancellation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.3 Preoperative Nursing Care
A patient with acute methamphetamine intoxication develops severe agitation and hyperthermia. According to the source, which intervention should be AVOIDED?
Why: The source states physical restraints should be avoided because patients who physically struggle against restraints undergo isometric muscle contractions associated with lactic acidosis, hyperthermia, sudden cardiac collapse, and death. IV benzodiazepines and cooling are used instead.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.2 Substances: Use, Intoxication, and Overdose
According to the source, long-term oxygen therapy is prescribed for a patient with COPD when oxygen saturation levels are at which value when at rest and in a stable condition?
Why: The source states long-term oxygen therapy is prescribed for patients with COPD when oxygen saturation levels are 88% or less when at rest and in a stable clinical condition. The other thresholds are not the value stated.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.6 COPD
According to the source, how does a patient's total Braden Scale score relate to their pressure injury risk?
Why: The source states the lower the score, the higher the risk of developing a pressure injury, and the more aggressive the preventive interventions taken. The score predicts risk rather than confirming an existing wound, so the other options are incorrect.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 10.5 Braden Scale
According to the source, which maneuvers do health care providers perform to detect developmental dysplasia of the hip in newborns?
Why: The source states health care providers perform the Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers during physical examination to detect DDH, feeling for a click with subluxation, dislocation, or reduction. Females are at higher risk for DDH.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.6 Congenital Conditions
The source states the placenta should be delivered within what time frame after birth to reduce hemorrhage risk?
Why: The source states the third stage averages 5 to 30 minutes and that placental delivery should occur within 30 minutes of birth to reduce hemorrhage risk. Signs of placental separation include cord lengthening, a change in uterine shape, and increased bleeding.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.3 Labor
According to the source, what is the primary symptom of pediculosis capitis (head lice)?
Why: The source states the primary symptom of pediculosis capitis is itching. Nits (eggs) are typically attached to the hair shaft, but their presence alone does not confirm active infection.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.18 Pediculosis Capitis (Lice)
The source states there are two types of stroke. An acute stroke caused by a blockage or occlusion of a cerebral or carotid artery is which type?
Why: The source states an acute ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage or occlusion of a cerebral or carotid artery, from plaque forming a thrombus or from an embolism. A hemorrhagic stroke is the second type, caused by a compromised vessel that ruptures and bleeds.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.9 Cerebrovascular Accident
A nurse assesses a postoperative patient for return of gastrointestinal function. Which finding is the best indicator of GI recovery?
Why: The source states the return of flatus and a bowel movement are the best indicators of gastrointestinal recovery. Decreased peristalsis is common after surgery due to anesthesia and opioid analgesics.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care
According to the source, approximately what proportion of communication is nonverbal?
Why: The source states nonverbal communication is more powerful than the verbal message, with up to 80% of communication being nonverbal. It also cites the percentages 55% body language, 38% tone of voice, and 7% actual words.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 2.2 Basic Communication Concepts
A provider is selecting a central line insertion site for an adult patient. Which site does CLABSI prevention guidance recommend avoiding when possible?
Why: The source lists optimal site selection, such as avoiding femoral vein access when possible for central venous access in adults, among CLABSI prevention strategies along with hand hygiene and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 4.2 Basic Concepts
According to the source, nurses are considered mandated reporters, which means they are required by law to do which of the following?
Why: The source states mandated reporters are required by law to report suspected abuse and neglect they see in the course of their professional duties. Nurses report suspected neglect or abuse of children, adults at risk, and the elderly.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 15.4 Abuse and Neglect
According to the source, life-threatening transfusion reactions typically occur within what time frame after initiating a transfusion?
Why: The source states life-threatening transfusion reactions typically occur within 15 minutes of initiating a transfusion. The nurse should remain with the patient during this time and monitor their physiologic responses.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 3.2 Basic Concepts
A nurse assesses a patient whose fractured bone has pierced through the skin. This type of fracture is best described as which of the following?
Why: The source defines an open or compound fracture as one in which the bone is broken and pierces through the skin, whereas a closed or simple fracture is broken but does not protrude the skin.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 10.6 Fracture
According to the source, which of the following is a resilience factor that may promote recovery after trauma?
Why: The source lists resilience factors that promote recovery, including receiving support from other people such as friends and family, finding a support group, and having a positive coping strategy. Little social support and feeling horror are listed as risk factors.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 9.6 Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Which task is appropriate for the RN to assign to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a stable patient?
Why: The source's UAP example assignment includes personal hygiene, toileting, and ambulation, with the UAP documenting and reporting to the RN or LPN/VN. Care planning, evaluation, and patient teaching require the RN's clinical judgment and cannot be delegated to UAP.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Delegation and Supervision
A nurse witnesses a car crash in which the only occupant is not breathing inside a burning vehicle. Based on the safety principle in the source, the nurse's first priority is to:
Why: The source uses this exact scenario to illustrate that safety receives priority: the first priority is not to initiate rescue breathing inside the burning car, but to move the person to a safe place where CPR can be safely provided. The other options ignore the environmental danger the source emphasizes.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 5.2 Basic Safety Concepts
The source states the uterine fundus can first be palpated at which gestational age?
Why: The source states that if the patient is at 12 or more weeks of gestation, the fundus can be palpated. The earlier weeks do not match the value given in the text.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.8 First Trimester Prenatal Care
According to the source's settings table, a nasal cannula delivers oxygen at what flow rate and FiO2 range?
Why: The source's settings table lists the nasal cannula flow rate as 1-6 L/min delivering an FiO2 of 24% to 44%, with about a 4% increase in FiO2 for every liter of oxygen. It is best used for stable patients requiring low amounts of oxygen.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 11.3 Oxygenation Equipment
According to the source, Florence Nightingale's interventions during the Crimean War focused primarily on which measures that reduced soldier mortality from about 60% to 2.2%?
Why: The source states Nightingale's interventions focused on providing a clean environment, clean water, and good nutrition to promote healing, decreasing the soldiers' mortality rate from 60% to 2.2%. Her statistical documentation of preventable deaths is described as an early foundation of evidence-based practice.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 1.2 History and Foundation
According to the source, what dose of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered at 28 weeks of pregnancy to an Rh-negative patient?
Why: The source states the dosage of Rho(D) immune globulin is 300 micrograms at 28 weeks of pregnancy and 50 micrograms after a first-trimester miscarriage or abortion. The 50-microgram dose applies only to early loss, not the 28-week dose.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.9 Second Trimester Prenatal Care
The source describes Type 4 (Delayed) hypersensitivity as a cell-mediated response by T cells. Which is an example it lists?
Why: The source states Type 4 (Delayed) hypersensitivity involves cell-mediated immune responses mediated by T cells, with examples including contact dermatitis, tuberculin skin test reactions, and graft rejection.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.5 Autoimmune and Hypersensitivity Reactions
According to the source describing the QSEN informatics competency, which of the following are examples of informatics technologies used by nurses?
Why: The source lists informatics technologies as electronic medical records (EMRs), bedside medication administration (barcode) devices, smart IV pumps, and medication distribution systems, and states nurses must maintain informatics competence.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Advocacy
A nurse leader anticipates barriers to a quality improvement project. Which of the following is identified in the source as a barrier to QI?
Why: The source lists barriers to QI including resistance to change, inadequate or fragmented data management systems, resource constraints, an unsupportive organizational culture, and regulatory or policy constraints. Strong support and abundant resources are facilitators, not barriers.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice
How does the source define the age range of a toddler?
Why: The source defines toddlers as age one to three years, when children begin to expand their exploration of the world and learn they can affect their environment through their actions.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 13.3 Stages of Child Development
A nurse is assessing individuals at risk for human trafficking. According to the source, which group is at increased risk of being trafficked?
Why: The source states that individuals at risk for human trafficking include runaway and homeless youth, foreign nationals, and individuals with a prior history of experiencing violence or abuse, because prior trauma leaves vulnerabilities that traffickers recognize.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations
The nurse suspects uterine atony after birth. According to the source, what are the first nursing actions?
Why: The source states that if uterine atony is suspected, the nurse initiates the PPH protocol, starts vigorous fundal massage, and instructs the patient to empty her bladder because a full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting efficiently. Methylergonovine is never given IV.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.9 Complications During the Third Stage of Labor
A patient under general anesthesia develops tachycardia, rigidity of the jaw, hypotension, and tachypnea. The nurse recognizes these as early indications of which complication?
Why: The source lists early indications of malignant hyperthermia as tachycardia, muscle rigidity (particularly of the jaw and upper chest), hypotension, and tachypnea. An extremely elevated body temperature is a late sign.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery
According to the source, a Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care (DPOAHC) does which of the following?
Why: The source defines a Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care as a person chosen to make health care decisions if the patient is incapacitated (usually a primary plus an alternate), who decides as the person would decide for themselves. It is distinct from a financial power of attorney.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Legal Implications
According to the source, which two approved medications are used to help control PTSD symptoms such as sadness, worry, and anger?
Why: The source states that antidepressants can help control PTSD symptoms and that two approved medications for PTSD are sertraline and paroxetine, both selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 9.6 Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
A nurse suspects an older adult is being abused. According to the source, which assessment action is recommended during evaluation?
Why: The source states that during assessment for elder abuse it is crucial to interview the elder alone, if possible, to ensure their safety and candor, use validated screening tools, and document findings thoroughly and objectively.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 15.4 Abuse and Neglect
A nurse delegated routine vital signs to a UAP for a stable patient. During the shift the patient's condition begins to change. According to the 'right circumstance' of delegation, what should occur?
Why: The source states that under the right circumstance, the patient's health condition must be stable; if it changes, the delegatee must communicate this and the nurse must reassess the appropriateness of the delegation. The delegatee cannot modify or make decisions without consulting the nurse.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Delegation and Supervision
A patient is being evaluated for a first manic episode. According to the source, screening is typically performed for which conditions on initial evaluation?
Why: The source states that on initial evaluation of a patient experiencing a manic episode, screening is typically performed for thyroid disorders and substance use, because hyperthyroidism and certain substances can cause mania-like symptoms.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 8.2 Basic Concepts of Bipolar Disorders
A nurse distinguishes between a side effect and an adverse effect of a medication. Which statement about an adverse effect is accurate per the source?
Why: The source states adverse effects are relatively unpredictable, severe, and are reason to discontinue the medication. A side effect (not adverse effect) is generally anticipated and a known unintended consequence. Potency and selectivity describe other drug properties, not adverse effects.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 1.11 Preparing for Administration
The source lists the assessment findings of a postoperative deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as which of the following?
Why: The source states DVT presents with unilateral redness, warmth, edema, and possible calf pain. The nurse promptly notifies the provider for diagnostic testing and anticoagulant therapy to prevent embolism.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care
According to the source, ACOG recommends that obstetric providers screen patients for depression and anxiety symptoms how often during the perinatal period?
Why: The source states ACOG recommends obstetric care providers screen patients for depression and anxiety symptoms at least once during the perinatal period and also conduct a full assessment of mood at the comprehensive postpartum visit. The USPSTF recommends screening all adults, including pregnant and postpartum women.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.13 Peripartum Depression
An enteral feeding tube has become clogged. According to the source, what is the best first choice for declogging efforts?
Why: The source states research supports using water as the best choice for initial declogging: instill warm water using a 60-mL syringe with gentle back-and-forth motion. Cranberry juice and carbonated beverages can worsen occlusions because their acidic pH causes proteins in the enteral formula to precipitate within the tube.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 17.2 Basic Concepts of Enteral Tubes
A nurse works in a school setting developing health care plans, providing screenings, and administering medications to students. According to the source, this describes which community nursing role?
Why: The source describes school nurses as providing direct health care, administering medications and treatments, developing health care plans and emergency action plans, providing health screenings, and collaborating with parents and medical providers to advance academic success.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 16.2 Community Health Concepts
According to the source, homelessness can significantly affect health in three ways. Which of the following is one of these ways?
Why: The source states homelessness affects health in three ways: health problems caused by homelessness, health problems that cause homelessness, and health conditions that are difficult to treat because of homelessness. The average age of death among homeless people is the mid-50s.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations
According to the source, oliguria in hospitalized adults is further defined as urine output of what amount?
Why: The source defines oliguria as decreased urine output (less than 500 mL in 24 hours), and in hospitalized patients further defines it as less than 0.5 mL of urine per kilogram per hour for adults and children. New oliguria should be reported because it can indicate dehydration, fluid retention, or decreasing kidney function.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 16.2 Elimination Basic Concepts
According to the source, how many oxygen molecules can each hemoglobin protein carry, and what is the term when all sites are filled?
Why: The source states each hemoglobin protein is capable of carrying four oxygen molecules, and when all four sites contain an oxygen molecule it is referred to as 'saturated.' The majority of oxygen is transported through the body attached to hemoglobin within red blood cells.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 8.2 Oxygenation Basic Concepts
A nurse is witnessing a patient's surgical consent. Which of the following is one of the three required conditions for valid informed consent?
Why: The source states consent must be given voluntarily, without any form of persuasion or coercion. The other two conditions are adequate disclosure by the surgeon and the patient's understanding before receiving sedating medications.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery
A patient presents with new-onset absence of menstruation. According to the source, which diagnostic test is used to rule out pregnancy as a cause?
Why: The source lists beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG) as the test used to rule out pregnancy in the workup of amenorrhea. Other listed tests include testosterone/DHEAS for hyperandrogenism and FSH, LH, estrogen, thyroid, and prolactin for hormonal imbalances.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.3 Amenorrhea
According to the public health guidance cited in the source, a healthy community is one in which which of the following occurs?
Why: The source states that according to public health guidance, a healthy community is one in which local groups work together to prevent disease and promote healthy living, benefiting the largest number of people and reducing health disparities.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 16.2 Community Health Concepts
The hospital accreditation body has issued a sentinel event alert on inadequate handoff communication. According to the source, inadequate handoffs have been linked to which harms?
Why: The source states the hospital accreditation body issued a sentinel event alert on inadequate handoff communication, which has been linked to wrong-site surgery, treatment delays, falls, and medication errors.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Collaboration Within the Interprofessional Team
A patient is receiving continuous enteral tube feeding. Per the aspiration-prevention guidelines in the source, how should the nurse position the head of the bed?
Why: The source states the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses recommends maintaining the head of the bed at 30-45 degrees unless contraindicated to reduce aspiration risk during enteral feeding. Flat or minimally elevated positioning would increase the patient's risk of aspiration.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 14.3 Applying the Nursing Process
According to the source, the mitral (apical) area where the apical pulse is normally felt is located at:
Why: The source states the mitral (apical or left ventricular) area is the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, and the apical pulse is expected to be felt over the midclavicular fifth intercostal space.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 9.3 Cardiovascular Assessment